PMP Exam Prep Study Group Input-Output-Tools #3a

Transcription

1 PMP Exam Prep Study Group Input-Output-Tools #3a Presented by Project Masters Inc. *Throughout this presentation, we reference and recognize the following trademarks, service marks, and copyrights of the Project Management Institute (PMI): PMP, PgMP, PMI, PMBOK, CAPM 1

2 You are working on the Plan Risk Management process to decide how to approach, plan, and execute risk management activities. All of the following are inputs to the Plan Risk Management process EXCEPT? You are working to decide how to approach, plan, and execute risk management activities. All of the following are needed EXCEPT? A. Stakeholder register B. Project charter C. Risk register D. Project management plan 2

3 Answer-C The risk register is an output of the Identify Risks process. 3

4 A project manger is being considered for a particular project that will deal exclusively with global virtual teams. He only has experience with local teams. What should he do when discussing the opportunity with the sponsor? A. Since he has managed many projects and teams, it does not make any difference that the new project involves global virtual teams. He should tell the sponsor he has the reliant experience. B. He should avoid any conversation regarding the types of teams involved so the sponsor does not know he lacks experience in this area C. The project manager should point out to the sponsor that he has not had experience with global virtual teams, but discuss why he thinks he is a good fit for the project anyway D. The project manger should point out to the sponsor that he has not had experience with global virtual teams and therefore must decline the assignment 4

5 Answer-C There are many issues that will be different in this project than those the project manager has experience with. It is unethical to overtly or indirectly mislead the sponsor about his qualifications. On the other hand, the project manger may have so many skills that would benefit the project that his lack of experience with global teams might not be a major problem. The project manager must make sure the sponsor is aware of the gaps in his qualifications, so the sponsor have the correct information on which to base his decision 5

6 You are in the Plan Risk Responses process of developing options and actions to reduce threats and enhance opportunities to your project objectives. The tools & techniques of the Plan Risk Responses process include As you plan risk responses to reduce threats and enhance opportunities to your project objectives which of the following would you use? A. Risk audits B. Avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept C. Technical performance measurement D. Variance and trend analysis 6

7 Answer-B Risk audits, technical performance measurement, and variance and trend analysis are tools & techniques used in the Control Risks process. Strategies for negative risks or threats such as avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept are used as tools & techniques in the Plan Risk Responses process. 7

8 The primary function of the Closing processes is to perform which of the following? A. Formalize lessons learned and distribute this information to project participants. B. Perform audits to verify the project results against the project requirements. C. Assure project records accurately reflect the final specifications of the product. D. Perform post implementation audits to document project successes and failures. 8

9 Answer-C The primary function of the Closing processes is to ensure that project records accurately reflect the final specifications of the product. It also analyzes project management processes for effectiveness, and roles and responsibilities documentation should be updated during these processes. 9

10 Which of the following statements regarding Ishikawa diagrams in the Identify Risks process is not true? A. Ishikawa diagrams are also called cause and effect diagrams B. Ishikawa diagrams are also called fishbone diagrams C. Ishikawa diagrams are part of the diagramming tool and technique of this process D. Ishikawa diagrams show the steps needed to identify the risk. 10

11 Answer-D Cause-and-effect diagrams also called Ishikawa or fishbone diagrams show the relationship between the effects of problems and their causes. Kaoru Ishikawa developed cause-andeffect diagrams. 11

12 All of the following are outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control Process except for which one? A. Change log B. Project management plan updates C. Organizational process assets updates D. Approved change requests 12

13 Answer-C The outputs of this process are approved change requests, change log, project management plan updates, and project documents updates. 13

14 This process is concerned with determining the engagement levels of the stakeholders. A. Plan Communications Management B. Control Communications C. Plan Stakeholder Management D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement 14

15 Answer-C Plan Stakeholder Management is concerned with determining the engagement levels of the stakeholders, understanding their needs and interests, and understanding how they might impact the project or how the project impact them. 15

16 Which of the following compression techniques increase risks? A. Crashing B. Resource leveling C. Fast tracking D. Lead and lag 16

17 Answer-C Fast-tracking is a compression technique that increases risk and potentially causes rework. Fast-tracking is starting two activities previously scheduled to start one after the other at the same time. 17

18 As a project manager You re responsible for maintaining and ensuring integrity for all of the following except which one? A. Personal integrity of others B. Project management process C. Personal integrity D. Product integrity 18

19 Answer-A You are not responsible for the personal integrity of others, but as project manager you do have influence over others, such as your project team members. 19

20 Feeding buffers and the project buffer are part of which of the following Develop Schedule tool and technique? Feeding buffers and the project buffer are used to adjust the A. Critical path method B. Schedule network analysis C. Applying leads and lags D. Critical chain method 20

21 Answer-D The critical chain is a resource-constrained critical path that adds duration buffers to help protect schedule slippage. 21

22 Each of the following statements describes an input to the Develop Project Management Plan process except for which one? A. Project charter B. Outputs from other planning processes C. Configuration management system D. Organizational process assets 22

23 Answer-C The inputs to Develop Project Management Plan include project charter, outputs from other planning processes, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets. The only tools & techniques of this process are expert judgment and facilitation techniques. 23

24 Monte Carlo analysis can help predict the impact of risks on project deliverables. This is an element of one of the tools & techniques of which of the following processes? A. Plan Risk Responses B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis C. Identify Risks D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis 24

25 Answer-B Monte Carlo analysis is a modeling and simulation technique that is part of the quantitative risk analysis and modeling techniques tool and techniques of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. 25

26 All of the following are tools & techniques of the Close Procurement process except for which one? A. Expert judgment B. Procurement audits C. Procurement negotiations D. Records management system 26

27 Answer-A The tools and techniques of Close Procurements are procurement audits, procurement negotiations, and records management system. 27

28 The inputs of the Control Communications process include all of the following except for which one? A. Work performance data B. Issue log C. Project communications D. Work performance information 28

29 Answer-D Work performance information is an output, not an input, of the Control Communications process. The remaining inputs of this process are project management plan and organizational process assets. 29

30 A major negotiation with a potential subcontractor is scheduled for tomorrow when you discover there is a good chance the project will be cancelled. What should you do? A. Do not spend too much time preparing for the negotiations B. Cut the negotiations short C. Only negotiate major items D. Postpone the negotiations 30

31 Answer-D Postponing the negotiations is the most ethical choice and demonstrates good faith. Why spend time in negotiations if it may be wasted time? 31

32 What are the Define Scope process tools and techniques? To Define Scope you should use which of the following? A. Cost-benefit analysis, scope baseline, expert judgment, and facilitated workshops B. Product analysis, alternatives generation, and expert judgment C. Product analysis, alternatives generation, expert judgment, and facilitated workshops D. Alternatives generation, stakeholder analysis, and expert judgment 32

33 Answer-C The tools and techniques of the Define Scope process include product analysis, alternatives generation, expert judgment, and facilitated workshops. 33

34 The project manager has the greatest influence over quality during which process? A. Plan Quality Management B. Perform Quality Assurance C. Control Quality D. Monitor Quality 34

35 Answer-B Perform Quality Assurance is the process where project managers have the greatest amount of influence over quality. 35

36 Which of the following describes the Executing process group? A. Project plans are put into action. B. Project performance measurements are taken and analyzed. C. Project plans are developed. D. Project plans are published. 36

37 Answer-A The Executing process group takes published project plans and turns them into actions to accomplish the goals of the project. 37

38 What are the inputs to the Develop Project Charter process? A. Agreements, project SOW, business case, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets B. Project SOW, business case, and organizational process assets C. Agreements, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets D. Project SOW, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets 38

39 Answer-A Develop Project Chart has five inputs, and they are agreements, project SOW, business case, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets 39

40 Which of the following list of processes belong to the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area? A. Define Scope, Close Procurements, and Perform Integrated Change Control B. Develop Project Management Plan, Direct and Manage Project Work, and Perform Integrated Change Control C. Define Scope, Direct and Manage Project Work, and Manage Stakeholders Expectations D. Define Scope, Collect Requirements, and Close Project or Phase 40

41 Answer-B The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area consists of the following processes; Develop Project Charter, Develop Project Management Plan, Direct and Manage Project Work, Monitor and Control Project Work, Perform Integrated Change Control, and Close Project or Phase 41

42 All of the following are inputs of the Estimates Costs process except for which one? A. Resource calendars B. Scope baseline C. Project schedule D. Human resource management plan 42

43 Answer-A The inputs of Estimate Costs are cost management plan, human resource management plan, scope baseline, project schedule, risk register, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets. 43

44 You want to improve your activity cost estimates by taking into account estimations uncertainty and risk. Which of the following tools and techniques will you use? A. Analogous estimates B. Three-point estimates C. Parametric estimates D. Bottom-up estimates 44

45 Answer-B Three-point estimating can improve activity cost estimates because they factor in estimation uncertainty and risks. 45

46 The information-gathering techniques used in the Identify Risks process include all of the following except. A. root cause analysis B. the Delphi technique C. brainstorming D. checklist analysis 46

47 Answer-D The information-gathering techniques in the Identify Risks process are brainstorming, the Delphi technique, interviewing, and root cause analysis. 47

48 Which of the following are constraints that you might find during the Plan Human Resource Management process? A. Organizational structures, collective bargaining agreements, and economic conditions B. Organizational structures, technical interfaces, and interpersonal interfaces C. Organizational interfaces, collective bargaining agreements, and economic conditions D. Organizational interfaces, technical interfaces, and interpersonal interfaces 48

49 Answer-A A constraint can be anything that limits the options of the project team. Organizational structures, collective bargaining agreements, and economic conditions are all constraints that you might encounter during this process. 49

50 Which conflict resolution technique offers project managers the best option for resolution? A. Smooth/accommodate B. Collaborate/problem solve C. Compromise/reconcile D. Force/direct 50

51 Answer-B Collaborate/problem solve is a problem-solving technique that seeks to determine the facts and find solutions based on the facts. It involves hearing multiple viewpoints and examining several perspectives. This results in a win-win resolution for all parties. 51

52 Which of the following tools and techniques of the Conduct Procurements process is used to check and compare proposed pricing to the benchmark? You are comparing proposed pricing to the benchmark. Which of the following are you using? A. Expert judgment B. Seller rating systems C. Independent estimates D. Proposal evaluation techniques 52

53 Answer-C Independent estimates, also called should cost estimates, are a way to check proposed pricing. 53

54 The tools & techniques of the Conduct Procurements process include all of the following except which one? A. Bidder conference B. Market research C. Advertising D. Analytical techniques 54

55 Answer-B Market research is a tool and technique of the Plan Procurement Management process. The tools and techniques of Conduct Procurements process are bidder conference, proposal evaluation techniques, independent estimates, expert judgment, advertising, analytical techniques, and procurement negotiations. 55

56 Negotiated draft contracts that will be used as the final contract are a requirement of which of the following outputs of the Conduct Procurement process? A. Work performance information B. Project document updates C. Procurement statement of work D. Selected sellers & Agreements 56

57 Answer-D The agreements and selected sellers output requires a negotiated contract. 57

58 This activity can become its own process with inputs and outputs on large or complex projects. A. Independent estimates B. Procurement negotiations C. Procurement agreements D. Proposal evaluations 58

59 Answer-B Procurement negotiations, a tool and technique of Conduct Procurements, can become its own process of inputs and outputs for large or complex projects. 59

60 The Control Procurements process is closely integrated with all of the following processes except which one? A. Direct and Manage Project Work B. Control Communications C. Perform Integrated Change Control D. Control Risks 60

61 Answer-B According to the PMBOK Guide, the Control Procurements process is closely coordinated with the Direct and Manage Project Work, Control Quality, Perform Integrated Change Control, and Control Risks processes. 61

62 Your project progressed as planned until yesterday. Suddenly, an unexpected risk event occurred. You quickly devised a response to deal with this negative risk even using which of the following outputs of Control Risks? A. Risk management plus updates B. Workarounds C. Corrective action D. Additional risk identification 62

63 Answer-B Workarounds are unplanned responses. They deal with negative risk events as they occur. As the name implies, workarounds were not previously known to the project team. The risk event was unplanned, so no contingency plan existed to deal with the risk event, and thus it required a workaround. 63

64 You are preparing for PMP and realize one tool is common to all Integration processes. What are you referring too? A. Project Management Information System B. Organizational Process Assets or Updates C. Enterprise Environmental Factor D. Expert Judgment 64

65 Answer-D All six processes of Project Integration Management use Expert judgment as a tool and technique. 65

66 During a large project, you have observed that your project meetings are consistently being dominated by a select number of experts unduly influencing other members and forcing them to group-think. Which tool should you use to promote the free flow of ideas without any influence? A. Monte Carlo B. Interviews C. Delphi technique D. Questionnaires 66

67 Answer-C The Delphi technique allows for anonymous collection of ideas without any influence. 67

68 Monitor and Control Risks do not use which of the following tools or techniques? A. Gathering information about how the work is performed B. Revisiting your risk register to review and reassess risk C. Bring in an outside party to review your risk response strategies D. Using Earned Value analysis to find variances that point to potential project problem 68

69 Answer-A You require work performance information when you report on project performance. This is not the case for monitoring and controlling risks Work Performance Information is an input to that process, which means that you need to complete this information gathering before you begin monitoring and controlling of project risks. 69