Shop No.89, 1 st floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi DAY REVISION PROGRAM DAY-21

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1 IAS BEE Shop No.89, 1 st floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi KEY 40- DAY REVISION PROGRAM DAY Ans: c Explanation: The chapter on fundamental duties of the Indian Constitution clearly imposes duty on every citizen to protect environment. Article 51-A (g), says that It shall be duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures. The Directive principles under the Indian constitution directed towards ideals of building welfare state. Healthy environment is also one of the elements of welfare state. Article 47 provides that the State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people health as among its primary duties. The improvement of public health also includes the protection and improvement of environment without which public health cannot be assured. Article 48 deals with organization of agriculture and animal husbandry. It directs the State to take steps to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines. In particular, it should take steps for preserving and improving the breeds and prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle. Article 48 -A of the constitution says that the state shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country. and the improvement of public

2 According to Article 21 of the constitution, no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. Article 21 has received liberal interpretation from time to time after the decision of the Supreme Court in Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India, (AIR 1978 SC 597). Article 21 guarantees fundamental right to life. Right to environment, free of danger of disease and infection is inherent in it. Right to healthy environment is important attribute of right to live with human dignity. Release.aspx?relid= Ans: c Explanation: Power to declare air pollution control areas, (1) The State Government may, after consultation with the State Board, by notification in the Official Gazette declare in such manner as may be prescribed, any area or areas within the State as air pollution control area or areas for the purposes of this Act. (2) The State government may, after consultation with the State Board, by notification in the Official Gazette,- (a) alter any air pollution control area whether by way of extension or reduction ; (b) declare a new air pollution control area in which may be merged one or more existing air pollution control areas or any part or parts thereof. (3) If the State Government, after consultation with the State Board, is of opinion that the use of any fuel, other than an approved fuel, in any air pollution control area or part thereof, may cause or is likely to cause air pollution, it may,

3 by notification in the Official Gazette, prohibit the use of such fuel in such area or part thereof with effect from such date (being not less than three months from the date of publication of the notification) as may be specified in the notification. air/air1.html 3. Ans: d Explanation: FUNCTIONS OF CENTRAL BOARD under Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 In particular and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing function, the Central Board may perform all or any of the following functions, namely:-- (a) advise the Central Government on any matter concerning the prevention and control of water pollution; (b) co-ordinate the activities of the State Boards and resolve disputes among them; (c) provide technical assistance and guidance to the State Boards, carry out and sponsor investigations and research relating to problems of water pollution and prevention, control or abatement of water pollution; (d) plan and organise the training of persons engaged or to be engaged in programs for the prevention, control or abatement of water pollution on such terms and conditions as the Central Board may specify; (e) organise through mass media a comprehensive programme regarding the

4 prevention and control of water pollution; 1[(ee) perform such of the functions of any State Board as may be specified in an order made under sub-section (2) of section 18]; (f) collect, compile and publish technical and statistical data relating to water pollution and the measures devised for its effective prevention and control and prepare manuals, codes or guides relating to treatment and disposal of sewage and trade effluents and disseminate information connected therewith; (g) lay down, modify or annul, in consultation with the State Government concerned, the standards for a stream or well: Provided that different standards may be laid down for the same stream or well or for different streams or wells, having regard to the quality of water, flow characteristics of the stream or well and the nature of the use of the water in such stream or well or streams or wells; (h) plan and cause to be executed a nation-wide programme for the prevention, control or abatement of water pollution; (i) perform such other functions as may be prescribed. water/wat1c4.html 4. Ans: a Explanation: The Act extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir. Therefore, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong. No State Government or other authority shall make, except with the prior approval of the

5 Central Government, any order directing- (i) that any reserved forest (within the meaning of the expression "reserved forest" in any law for the time being in force in that State) or any portion thereof, shall cease to be reserved; (ii) that any forest land or any portion thereof may be used for any non-forest purpose; (iii) that any forest land or any portion thereof may be assigned by way of lease or otherwise to any private person or to any authority, corporation, agency or any other organisation not owned, managed or controlled by Government; (iv) that any forest land or any portion thereof may be cleared of trees which have grown naturally in that land or portion, for the purpose of using it for reafforestation. /forest2.html 5. Ans: a Explanation: According to the Act, it shall be lawful for the Chief Wildlife Warden, to granta permit, by an order in writing stating the reasons thereof, to any person, on payment of such fee as may be prescribed, which shall entitle the holder of such permit to hunt, subject to such conditions as may be specified therein, any wild animal specified in such permit, for the purpose of, (a) education; (b) scientific research; (bb) scientific management; The State Government may, by notification, declare its intention to constitute any area other than area comprised with

6 any reserve forest or the territorial waters as a sanctuary if it considers that such area is of adequate ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, natural, or zoological significance, for the purpose of protecting, propagating or developing wildlife or its environment. e/wildlife1c3.pdf and e/wildlife1c4.pdf 6. Ans: c under Section 7 of the Biological Diversity Act The legislation provides for the following exemptions a. Exemption to local people and communities of the area for free access to use biological resources within India b. Exemptions to growers and cultivators of biodiversity and to Vaids and Hakims to use biological resources. c. Exemption through notification of normally traded commodities from the purview of the Act only when used as commodity Explanation: The Indian researchers neither require prior approval nor need to give prior intimation to SBB for obtaining biological resource for conducting research in India. In case the results are used for commercial purposes, prior intimation to the State Biodiversity Board is required d. Exemption for collaborative research through government sponsored or government approved institutions subject to overall policy guidelines and approval of the Central Government and conforms to the central government guidelines.

7 An explicit exemption has been made in section 7 for local people and communities, including growers and cultivators of biodiversity, and vaids and hakims. Moreover commercial utilization has been defined in section 2, which also specifically excludes traditional practices and use in agriculture, horticulture, poultry, dairy farming, animal husbandry etc. /16/1/faq.html CRZ II These areas form up to the shoreline of the coast. Authorized structures are not allowed to be constructed in this zone CRZ III This includes rural and urban localities. Only certain activities relating to agriculture and public utilities allowed here CRZ IV This includes the aquatic area up to the territorial limit (12 nautical miles). Fishing and allied activities permitted in this zone. Solid waste can be let off in this zone. 7. Ans: d Explanation: CRZ I It refers to the ecologically sensitive areas, essential in maintaining ecosystem of the coast. These lie between the HTL and LTL. Only exploration of natural gas and extraction of salt is permitted ures/homes-andgardens/building-norms-forcoastalzones/article ece 8. Ans: c

8 Explanation: Environment Act, 1986 This is an umbrella Act for the protection and improvement of environment and for matters connected with it. This Act has given the Central Government power to take all measures it deems necessary for protection and improving the environment and preventing, controlling and abating environmental pollution. The Act provides that no person carrying on any industry, operation or process shall discharge or emit any environmental pollutant in excess of such standards as may be prescribed. Under this Act, the Central Government has restricted or prohibited the location in the industries. Restrictions have been imposed on various activities in fragile areas like Doon Valley in UP, Aravali Regions in Alwar, Rajasthan, Coastal zones and ecologically sensitive zones, etc. Even the SPCB cannot relax either the time limit for compliance or the standards stipulated by the Government. m/features/environmentallegislation html 9. Ans: C Statement 1 is correct. Fly ash will be used to make bricks, blocks, tiles, wall panels, cement and other construction materials. Its Agricultural uses are soil amendment, fertilizer, cattle feeders, soil stabilization in stock feed yards, and agricultural stakes. Statement 2 is correct. Fly ash is one of the coal combustion products, composed of the fine particles that are driven out of the boiler with the flue gases. Statement 3 is incorrect. Constituents of fly ash can be, Arsenic, beryllium, boron, cadmium, chromium, hexavalent chromium, cobalt, lead, manganese, mercury, molybdenum, selenium, strontium, thallium, and vanadium. Its negatively impacts in the environment are, depositing over snow, thus reducing the albedo and initiating melting. In India

9 Himalayan ecology in particular is adversely impacted by fly ash. 10. Ans: D World s largest nature conservation organisation BirdLife International has recognised three more Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs), Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary, Navelim Wetlands and Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary which have been recognised by Birdlife International as priority sites for bird and bird habitat conservation in Goa. 11. Ans: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Kigali Agreement is a legally binding agreement and will come into force from January 1, Statement 2 is correct. The Kigali Agreement upholds the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR & RC). It recognizes the development imperatives of high-growth economies like India, and provides a realistic and viable roadmap for the implementation of a phase-out schedule for high global warming potential (GWP) HFCs. 12. Ans: A Pairs 1 and 2 are correct. Manas sanctuary and National Park (Assam) is famous for Wild buffaloes Dachigam sanctuary (Jammu and Kashmir) is famous for Kashmir stags, Himalayan tahr, wild goats, sheep, antelopes. 13. Ans: D Both the statements are incorrect. The UNFCCC is a "Rio Convention", one of three adopted at the "Rio Earth Summit" in Its sister Rio Conventions are the UN Convention on Biological Diversity and the Convention to Combat Desertification. This treaty is not legally binding as it does not set mandatory limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries and doesn't contain any enforcement mechanisms. The ultimate objective of the Convention is to "stabilize and (not eliminate )greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that will prevent dangerous human interference with the climate system." This treaty states that that "such a level should be achieved within a time-frame sufficient to allow ecosystems to adapt naturally to climate change, to ensure that food production is not threatened, and to enable economic development to proceed in a sustainable manner." 14. Ans:A Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Listed in Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, in Appendix I of CITES and as Endangered on IUCN Red List. 15. Ans: A The Espoo Convention sets out the obligations of Parties to assess the

10 environmental impact of certain activities at an early stage of planning. It also lays down the general obligation of States to notify and consult each other on all major projects under consideration that are likely to have a significant adverse environmental impact across boundaries.