HOUR EXAM II BIOLOGY 422 FALL, In the spirit of the honor code, I pledge that I have neither given nor received help on this exam.

Similar documents
HOUR EXAM II BIOLOGY 422 FALL, In the spirit of the honor code, I pledge that I have neither given nor received help on this exam.

HOUR EXAM I BIOLOGY 422 FALL, In the spirit of the honor code, I pledge that I have neither given nor received help on this exam.

HOUR EXAM II BIOLOGY 422 FALL, In the spirit of the honor code, I pledge that I have neither given nor received help on this exam.

FINAL EXAMINATION BIOLOGY 422 FALL, In the spirit of the honor code, I pledge that I have neither given nor received help on this exam.

HOUR EXAM II BIOLOGY 422 FALL, 2012

Genetics Lecture Notes Lectures 13 16

Solutions to 7.02 Quiz III

The plasmid shown to the right has an oriv and orit at the positions indicated, and is known to replicate bidirectionally.

Lac Operon contains three structural genes and is controlled by the lac repressor: (1) LacY protein transports lactose into the cell.

Name HOUR EXAM II BIOLOGY 108 FALL, 2003

Section B: The Genetics of Bacteria

Please sign below if you wish to have your grades posted by the last five digits of your SSN

March 15, Genetics_of_Viruses_and_Bacteria_p5.notebook. smallest viruses are smaller than ribosomes. A virulent phage (Lytic)

5.) Name and describe one gene product in E.coli that is associated with performing each step in the recombination process. (6pts)

MCB 102 University of California, Berkeley August 11 13, Problem Set 8

GENETICS - CLUTCH CH.5 GENETICS OF BACTERIA AND VIRUSES.

7.02 Microbial Genetics in Lab Quiz. Fall, September 27, 2001 ANSWER KEY

7. (10pts.) The diagram below shows the immunity region of phage l. The genes are:

The Fertility Factor, or F

Biology 201 (Genetics) Exam #3 120 points 20 November Read the question carefully before answering. Think before you write.

CHAPTER 2A HOW DO YOU BEGIN TO CLONE A GENE? CHAPTER 2A STUDENT GUIDE 2013 Amgen Foundation. All rights reserved.

3 Designing Primers for Site-Directed Mutagenesis

Problem Set 8. Answer Key

Biotechnology. Review labs 1-5! Ch 17: Genomes. Ch 18: Recombinant DNA and Biotechnology. DNA technology and its applications

Rawan Almujaibel Anas Abu-Humaidan

Version A. AP* Biology: Biotechnology. Name: Period

Lecture Series 10 The Genetics of Viruses and Prokaryotes

Molecular Genetics Techniques. BIT 220 Chapter 20

7.02/ Genetics Exam Study Questions Spring The exam will be: Thursday, April 27 th, :05-11:55 AM Walker Gym, 3 rd floor (50-340)

Name Biol Group Number. ALE 11. The Genetics of Viruses, Control of Gene Expression, and Recombinant DNA Technology

BIOLOGY 205 Midterm II - 19 February Each of the following statements are correct regarding Eukaryotic genes and genomes EXCEPT?

2 nd year Medical Students - JU Bacterial genetics. Dr. Hamed Al Zoubi Associate Professor of Medical Microbiology. MBBS / J.U.S.

# ml too many to count # ml 161/173 # ml 4/1

The Regulation of Bacterial Gene Expression

Name Per AP: CHAPTER 27: PROKARYOTES (Bacteria) p559,

Unit 8: Genomics Guided Reading Questions (150 pts total)

Microbiology. Zhenmei Lu ( 吕镇梅 ) 2010 Spring-Summer 2017 Spring-Summer

Step 1: Digest vector with Reason for Step 1. Step 2: Digest T4 genomic DNA with Reason for Step 2: Step 3: Reason for Step 3:

Bacteria Reproduce Asexually via BINARY FISSION

Chapter 9. Topics - Genetics - Flow of Genetics - Regulation - Mutation - Recombination

BACTERIAL GENETICS. How does the DNA in the bacterial cell replicate

Q2 (1 point). How many carbon atoms does a glucose molecule contain?

Chapter 9 Genetic Engineering

Name 10 Molecular Biology of the Gene Test Date Study Guide You must know: The structure of DNA. The major steps to replication.

Exam 2 Key - Spring 2008 A#: Please see us if you have any questions!

Biotechnolog y and DNA Technology

7.02 Recombinant DNA Methods Spring 2005 Exam Study Questions Answer Key

ANSWERS TO Problem set questions from Exam 2 Unit Mutations, Bacterial Genetics, and Bacterial Gene Regulation

Chapter 10 Microbial Genetics: New Genes for Old Germs

Confirming the Phenotypes of E. coli Strains

5. the transformation of the host cell. 2. reject the virus. 4. initiate an attack on the virus.

CHAPTER 20 DNA TECHNOLOGY AND GENOMICS. Section A: DNA Cloning

Mcbio 316: Exam 3. (10) 2. Compare and contrast operon vs gene fusions.

4/3/2013. DNA Synthesis Replication of Bacterial DNA Replication of Bacterial DNA

BIO 202 Midterm Exam Winter 2007

Unit IIB Exam (v. 1.0)

Genetic Adaptation II. Microbial Physiology Module 3

Micro 411/Genome Sci411 Exam Three

Zool 3200: Cell Biology Exam 3 3/6/15

Recombinant DNA recombinant DNA DNA cloning gene cloning

7.1 Techniques for Producing and Analyzing DNA. SBI4U Ms. Ho-Lau

number Done by Corrected by Doctor Hamed Al Zoubi

Chapter 9. Biotechnology and DNA Technology

1. What is the structure and function of DNA? Describe in words or a drawing the structure of a DNA molecule. Be as detailed as possible.

Chapter 4. Recombinant DNA Technology

Understanding the Cellular Mechanism of the Excess Microsporocytes I (EMSI) Gene. Andrew ElBardissi, The Pennsylvania State University

Biotechnology and DNA Technology

AP Biology Gene Expression/Biotechnology REVIEW

Viruses and Bacteria Notes

Biotechnology: DNA Technology & Genomics

Molecular Biology Midterm Exam 2

7.02/ Microbial Genetics Exam Study Questions

Microbial Biotechnology agustin krisna wardani

Lecture 22: Molecular techniques DNA cloning and DNA libraries

Packaging of P22 DNA requires a pac site while packaging of lambda DNA requires a cos site. Briefly describe:

By two mechanisms: Mutation Genetic Recombination

DNA Cloning with Cloning Vectors

Synthetic Biology for

Expression of Recombinant Proteins

B. Incorrect! Ligation is also a necessary step for cloning.

Gene Transfer 11/4/13. Fredrick Griffith in the 1920s did an experiment. Not until 1944 was DNA shown to be the moveable element

Chapter 15 Recombinant DNA and Genetic Engineering. Restriction Enzymes Function as Nature s Pinking Shears

BIOTECHNOLOGY. Sticky & blunt ends. Restriction endonucleases. Gene cloning an overview. DNA isolation & restriction

F (fertility) plasmid Fig Gene movement, part III and restriction-modification. Plasmid transfer via F conjugation

Solutions to the Genetics Practice Questions

M I C R O B I O L O G Y WITH DISEASES BY TAXONOMY, THIRD EDITION

Regulation of metabolic pathways

Unit 2: Metabolism and Survival Sub-Topic (2.7) Genetic Control of Metabolism (2.8) Ethical considerations in the use of microorganisms

Recombinant DNA. Lesson Overview. Lesson Overview Recombinant DNA

Big Idea 3C Basic Review

Some types of Mutagenesis

Biotechnology. Chapter 20. Biology Eighth Edition Neil Campbell and Jane Reece. PowerPoint Lecture Presentations for

Reading Lecture 3: 24-25, 45, Lecture 4: 66-71, Lecture 3. Vectors. Definition Properties Types. Transformation

Algorithms in Bioinformatics ONE Transcription Translation

Supporting Information

Regulation of enzyme synthesis

In vitro mutagenesis

1a. What is the ratio of feathered to unfeathered shanks in the offspring of the above cross?

Overview: The DNA Toolbox

2054, Chap. 14, page 1

Transcription:

Name First Last (Please Print) PID Number - HOUR EXAM II BIOLOGY 422 FALL, 2010 In the spirit of the honor code, I pledge that I have neither given nor received help on this exam. 1 Signature 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1

1. Selection (8 points) You performed a conjugation experiment between two strains of bacteria with the following genotypes Hfr: val + tyr asn + mal + lac suc tet S amp R F : val tyr + asn + mal lac + suc + tet R amp S A. (6 points) What would you add to minimal media to select for recombinants with the following genotypes? Check the boxes of the ingredients you will add to the media. Genotype Val Tyr Asn Glu Mal Lac Suc Tet Amp val + suc + amp R B. (2 points) A friend in another lab has offered you some media she thinks might be helpful. What recombinants would you select for with the following media? (2 points) Minimal media with val, tyr, mal, and tet: 2. (7 points) You are interested in the relative positions of the following genes ade, trp, thi. You grow the phage P1 on an E. coli strain which is ade --, trp +, and thi +. You then use the phage to transduce the genes into an E. coli which is ade +, trp --, and thi --. Gene Selected % selected colonies which are ade + trp + thi + trp + 10 100 30 thi + 80 30 100 Make a diagram showing the gene order and relative positions. Why didn t you select for cells which were ade +? 2

3. A. (10 points) TYMO viruses infect plants. Describe the mechanism by which a TYMO virus produces its proteins. Be specific but concise and mention the steps and enzymes involved. B. (2 points) One of the animal viruses we studied is similar to TYMO virus in the way it makes proteins. Which virus? How is it similar? 3

4. Transposon Mutagenesis (12 points) You plan to identify the mechanism used by a newly identified bacterial species (Pseudomonas detoxicas) to breakdown toluene (a toxic benzene based chemical found in many paints, paint thinners, adhesives. It is a byproduct from refining petroleum). You plan to introduce a transposon into P. detoxicas via a plasmid (containing the transposon and transposase) that cannot replicate in P. detoxicas. You plan to construct the transposon plasmid in E. coli, purify the plasmid from E. coli, and then introduce the purified plasmid to P. detoxicas via transformation. A) What origin(s) of replication would you put in the transposon plasmid? E. coli, P. detoxicas, neither or both? Why? (2 points) B) Name another important feature of the plasmid. You cannot use the transposase enzyme or origin(s) of replication. Discuss the purpose of this feature and how it is important for creating or identifying transposon mutants. (4 points) C) Once you preform the mutagenesis correctly (you know there were no technical errors because you tested for and found mutants with leucine auxotrophy at the expected frequency), there is a possibility that you will not find single transposon insertion mutants that fail to degrade toluene. What is a possible reason for this? (2 points) D) You test 9,000 potential mutants and identify 65 mutants that failed to degrade toluene. There are 3,000 genes in the bacterial genome. Roughly how many genes are required for the breakdown of toluene? (1 point) E) Besides the enzymes in the pathway that directly breakdown toluene, what is another gene you might identify as required for toluene breakdown in the screen? How does this influence toluene breakdown? (3 points) 4

NOTE. FOR THE PROTOCOLS FOR QUESTIONS 5 AND 6 YOU MAY ONLY USE REAGENTS LISTED ON THE LAST PAGE OF THE EXAM. 5. 14 points You decide to use one of the transposon mutants you isolated in question 4 above to study the genes required for the degradation of toluene. The transposon you used encoded resistance to tetracycline. It sequence is known and when you look it up you find no sites for the restriction enzymes EcoR1 and BamH1. How do you obtain a clone containing the site of insertion of the transposon? (7 points) Your clone was successful. How do you obtain a clone of the intact gene into which the transposon had inserted? (3 points) You grow E. coli containing a plasmid carrying a gene required for toluene degradation behind the lac promoter. What medium do you use to grow these bacteria to obtain expression of this gene? (2 points) You discover that the expression of this gene in E. coli does not allow E. coli to degrade toluene. What is one possible reason? (2 points) 5

6. (10 points) Imagine that you are working as an infectious disease specialist and clinical microbiologist at a local hospital. In the last few weeks, eleven patients have arrived in the emergency room with a form of pneumonia that you have never seen before. You have tested samples from many of the patients and have discovered no evidence of a known pathogen. You have concluded that the disease is being caused by a new pathogen. In addition, it has come to your attention while taking patient histories that several of your patients have recently purchased pet rabbits from the same pet shop. When you ask family members of these patients, you discovered that the rabbits are also showing signs of pneumonia and you suspect a bacterial pathogen. Design a protocol, using the reagents on your reagent shelf, to identify and isolate the pathogen. Remember that you must satisfy the principles necessary to determine that the organism you isolate is the pathogen causing the disease. Make you protocol as a bulleted list. (8 points) What is one factor that can make satisfying the principles mentioned above difficult? (2 points) 6

7. Bacterial Toxins (11 points) Fill in the following chart with the designated information Toxin Modification (e.g. methylation of enzyme Q) of host cell entities by the toxin Molecular effect on the cell (1-2 sentences each) Cholera Organ(s) affected Botulism XXXXXXXXXXX XXXXXXXXXXX XXXXXXXXXXX Diphtheria XXXXXXXXXXX 7

8. (12 points) Innate Immune Response: The innate immune system has several different levels of defense against pathogens. A. List three surface or barrier defenses that are used to stop microbes from colonizing a host. (3 points) 1. 2. 3. B. What are two ways that bacteria can be killed in the phagosome? (2 points) 1. 2. C. Fill in the blanks. (7 points) Phagocytes can recognize invading microbes using that recognize on the microbes. This recognition leads to the production of, which cause, the key features of which are,, and. 9. (6 points) Eukaryotes can sometimes obtain advantages from association with a prokaryote. Fill in the following table indicating two different types of such advantages for two different eukaryotes and prokaryotes. Prokaryote involved in association Eukaryote involved in association Advantage to eukaryote 8

10. Metabolism (8 points) You have E. coli growing in minimal medium under the following conditions: 1) Added glucose, Aerobic 37⁰C 2) Added glucose, Anaerobic 37⁰C 3) Added lactose, Aerobic 37⁰C 4) Added glucose, Aerobic 20⁰C 5) Added glucose, Aerobic 55⁰C Complete the following questions. CIRCLE ONE (1 point each) A) The growth rate of condition 2 is: (FASTER EQUAL SLOWER) compared to condition 1. B) The growth rate of condition 3 is: (FASTER EQUAL SLOWER) compared to condition 1. C) Growth rate of condition 4: FAST SLOW NO GROWTH D) Growth rate of condition 5: FAST SLOW NO GROWTH Fill in the following chart (2 points per row) Organism and Growth Medium conditions E. coli, Minimal medium with Glucose and NO 3 - Thiobacillus H 2 S 2 O 3, CO 2 and salts Anaerobic 37 o C Anaerobic 37 o C Growth Rate (Fast, Medium, Slow, None) Biochemical Process producing energy Electron Donor Final Electron Acceptor 9

Use the following list of reagents to answer questions for this exam. Amino acids vitamins sugars antibiotics threonine (thr) biotin (bio) glucose (glu) streptomycin (sm) leucine (leu) thiamine (thi) lactose (lac) asparagine (asn) maltose (mal) ampicillin (amp) valine (val) sucrose (suc) tryptophan (trp) nucleic acid bases tetracycline (tet) tyrosine (tyr) adenine (ade) neomycin (neo) cytosine (cyt) kanamycin (kan) minimal medium without carbon source complex medium chemicals X-gal IPTG toluene Supplementary Reagent shelf for use in questions 5 and 6 dogs, cats, mice, rabbits, monkeys, parrots, goldfish, maize plants non-specific media for growing bacteria (plates) P. detoxicas competent P. detoxicas P. detoxicas DNA a library of P. detoxicas DNA in a plasmid encoding kan R in E. coli E. coli competent E. coli E. coli arg - tra + rif R carrying punc5 E. coli arg - tra + rif R carrying pam22 DNA of plasmid punc5 mob + amp R which possess a Mini-Tn5 transposon that encodes kan R and has one EcoR1 site and an origin of replication which is only recognized by E. coli DNA of plasmid pam22 that has one HindIII site, one BamH1 site, and two EcoR1 and BglII sites and an origin of replication which is only recognized by E. coli and encodes amp R all the biochemicals and media on the list above all restrictionn enzymes DNA polymerase, DNA ligase, ATP, topoisomerase all enzyme buffers pcr primers and a pcr machine gel electrophoresis apparatus kit to extract DNA kit to label DNA pink kit to extract proteins kit to label proteins blue 10