Chapter-1: Management Self Assessment Questions 1. The study of organizational behavior includes an understanding of which of the following: a. the process of management. b. interactions with the external environment. c. organizational processes and the execution of work. d. all of the above. 2. When the needs of the individual and the organization are, conflict and frustration can arise. a. consistent b. compatible c. similar d. incompatible 3. There are many aspects to management in work organizations, but the one essential ingredient of any successful manager is: a. the ability to adapt to technological change. b. the ability to deal with people effectively. c. the ability to make calculated decisions. d. the ability to implement the policies of the organization. 4. The style of management adopted by managers can be seen as a function of the manager s: a. attitudes towards people. b. assumptions about human nature and behavior. c. both of the above. d. neither of the above. 5. The psychological contract is: a. a signed document stating mutual explicit needs. b. a listing of statutory requirements. c. a formal contract of employment. d. a series of implicit mutual expectations.
6. According to Patching, is organization development. a. Strategic thinking b. Business strategy c. Participative management d. Management development 7. A number of approaches may be used to bring about effective change within an organisation, often called intervention strategies, these include: a. T-groups b. grid training c. team building d. all of the above 8. A definition of organizational culture is that it is the collection of and attitudes that constitute a pervasive context for everything we think and do in an organization. a. Traditions, values b. Policies, practices, behaviors c. Traditions, values, policies, beliefs d. Values, styles, processes, activities 9. Schein suggested three levels of culture in order from shallowest to deepest. In this order, they are: a. History, artefacts, beliefs b. Assumptions, artefacts, values c. History, values, activities d. Artefacts, values, assumptions 10. Harrison and Handy describe a project oriented organization which is structured like a matrix and based on expert power as a culture. a. Power b. Person c. Task d. Role 11. According to Deal and Kennedy, an organization of individualists who take high risks and receive quick feedback, and where internal competition and conflict are normal, the type of culture can be described as:
a. bet-your-company culture b. work-hard/play-hard culture c. process culture d. tough-guy, macho culture 12. The pervasive nature of culture means that it will significantly affect: a. group behavior b. decision-making c. motivation and job satisfaction d. all three of these 13. The Peters and Waterman study revealed that there was a particular factor that led to these organizations effectiveness. What was that factor? a. Having a clear and rigidly defined organizational structure b. Dominance and coherence of culture c. Being decentralized and organic d. Being a large multinational organization 14. Organizational climate is based on the of members towards the organization. a. commitment b. perceptions c. loyalty d. none of the above 15. Galunic and Weeks suggest that with the demise of WHAT, companies need other strategies to encourage commitment? a. Job security b. Career paths c. Pension plans d. Promotion opportunities 16. Resistance to change can be caused by: a. Selective perception b. Inconvenience c. Habit d. All three of the above 17. It is Cunningham s belief that, despite the popular myth to the contrary, people generally
a. Prefer stability b. Love change c. Dislike change d. Like being controlled 18. Which of the following is NOT one of Kotter and Cohen s series of steps for successful management of large-scale change? a. Unfreezing b. Empowering action c. Creating visions d. Producing short-term wins 19. Emotions which can cause a negative attitude and resistance to change include: a. Over-excitement b. Frustration c. Both of these d. Neither of these 20. According to Hooper and Potter s study of 25 chief executives, which of the following were crucial to the successful management of organizational change? a. Effective communication b. Self-pacing c. Setting a good personal example d. All three of the above Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (d) 2.(b) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(c) 6. (a) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(c) 10.(a) 11. (c) 12.(a) 13.(a) 14.(d) 15.(b) 16. (c) 17.(a) 18.(d) 19.(c) 20.(d)
Chapter-2: Planning Self Assessment Questions 1. Identify the best definition of planning. a. The core activity of planners and planning departments. b. Setting an organization s objectives and the means of reaching them. c. An integrated process, in which plans are formulated, carried out and controlled. d. Devising ways of achieving the objectives of an organization. 2. Which of these statements best summarizes the meanings of management? a. Only people in formal organizations act as managers b. Only a few experienced people in an organization are managers c. Management is both a general human activity and a specialized occupation d. Management is a job conducted by those with special training 3. The head of a division in a company who is responsible for the production, marketing and finance of this division and for generally ensuring its profitability is known as what type of manager? a. First-line manager b. Functional manager c. Supervisor d. General manager 4. A staff manager is someone who performs which of these functions? a. Is responsible for recruiting and selecting new staff b. Manages the staff of the organization c. Deals with customer complaints d. Is in charge of support functions such as finance, personnel or legal matters 5. A supervisor in a car production plant is an example of what kind of manager? a. Support manager b. Middle manager c. Top manager d. First-line manager 6. The function of arranging the work to be done and assigning tasks, authority and resources to people so that they can work to support the purposes of the organization is known as: a. Planning
b. Controlling c. Leading d. Organizing 7. When a marketing manager tells a subordinate that she did an excellent job when she made a presentation to senior management, what function is that manager performing? a. Organizing b. Leading c. Controlling d. Planning 8. Rosemary Stewart studied the pattern of managers' work. Which of these statements best represents the main conclusion of her research? a. Most managers spent a lot of time thinking and carefully analyzing problems b. Most managers spent a lot of time working alone c. Managers typically work in a fragmented way, with many interruptions d. There was little variation between managers in their working patterns 9. According to Mintzberg, all of the following are examples of the interpersonal roles of a manager, except: a. Leading b. Acting as a liaison c. Acting as a symbol d. Negotiating 10. According to Mintzberg, which of the following is an example of the decisional roles which a manager plays? a. Monitoring progress b. Acting as a spokesperson for the organization c. Leading d. Allocating some of the resources of the organization 11. Which of these statements best describes the idea of the context within which managers work? a. It represents factors both inside and outside the organization which influence the manager, and which the manager can also try to influence b. It is outside the organization, and therefore beyond the manager's control c. Managers can easily act without referring to vague external things like the context d. The context determines what the manager can do
12. We identify three levels of planning. What are they? a. Strategic, administrative and functional b. Top, middle and bottom c. Operational, intermediate and strategic d. Headquarters, divisional and local 13. What is the planning horizon? a. The time period within which uncertainty is very low. b. The maximum time for which managers can make plans. c. The time ahead for which there is no information. d. The time between making a plan and putting it into effect. 14. We identified several internal benefits of objectives, goals and a sense of mission. Which is not included? a. Basis of control b. Motivation c. Basis of plans and decisions d. Basis to resolve disputes 15. A good objective should clarify the desired result; i) enable achievement to be measured; and iii) need not specify a time scale. Which of these statements is true? a. (ii) only b. (ii) and (iii) c. (iii) only d. and (ii) 16. What is measurement ship? a. Trying to agree low objectives so as to look good later b. Surveying by naval architects. c. Concentrating on measurable targets at the expense of others d. Collecting too much performance data 17. What three problems commonly hindering successful planning did we identify? a. Lack of planning expertise; little top management support; misuse of planning specialists. b. Conflict among objectives; impossibility of measuring outcomes; confusion between means and ends.
c. Procedures unsuited to change; negative organizational culture; poor interpersonal relationships. d. An oversized planning department; poor co-operation between managers and planners; managers with little time to gather information. 18. What is the more formal term for what is known as 'Plan B'? a. A contingency plan b. A convergence plan c. A catastrophe plan d. A circumstantial plan 19. Good crisis management involves immediately decentralizing control to a number of welltrained teams. They concentrate on speedy resolution of the crisis. a. True b. False 20. Planning is an intellectual process, the conscious determination of courses of action, the basing of decisions on purpose, acts and considered estimates. a. True b. False Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (b) 2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(d) 5.(d) 6. (d) 7.(b) 8.(c) 9.(d) 10.(d) 11. (a) 12.(c) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15.(d) 16. (a) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(a)
Chapter-3: Business Forecasting Self Assessment Questions 1. The first step in the human resource planning process is: a. forecasting. b. goal setting. program implementation. d. program evaluation. 2. An advantage of statistical forecasting methods is that: a. under the right conditions, they provide predictions that are much more precise than judgmental methods. b. they are particularly useful in dynamic environments..they are particularly useful if important events that occur in the labor market have no historical precedent. d. in the event of a legal dispute, they are easily understood by juries or a judge. 3. The process of determining whether there are any subgroups, whose proportion in a given job category within a company is substantially different from their proportion in the relevant labor market is called: a. adverse treatment analysis. b. workforce utilization review. c. subgroup reconciliation. d. discrimination analyses. 4. In a survey of large well-known businesses, about one-third of open job positions were filled by: a. insiders. b. referrals. c. on campus recruitment.
d. direct applicants. 5. An organization seeking to reduce a projected labor surplus must select from a number of possible options aimed at obtaining that objective. This occurs at what step in the human resource planning process? a. Goal setting and strategic planning b. Program evaluation c. Forecasting d. Program implementation 6. In personnel forecasting, the HR professional tries to: a. predict the number and types of legal challenges the company is likely to face within the year. b. develop HR policies and practices in response to anticipated moves by major competitors. c. determine the supply of and demand for various types of human resources. d. anticipate trends within the HR field which are most likely to impact the success of current company operations. 7. Why is hiring new employees for every labor shortage not preferable? a. The process is fast and can result in high human suffering. b. It forces older employees to retire, though they may not want to retire soon. c. Selecting new employee s results in too many discrimination law suits. d. When the shortage becomes a surplus, the organization may have to lay off employees. 8. What is a phased-retirement program? a. Laying off older employees in small batches. b. Giving lucrative incentives to a large number of older employees so that they voluntarily retire. c. Reducing the number of hours the older employees work. d. Giving older employees a certain time limit to voluntarily retire. 9. Forecasts.
a. become more accurate with longer time horizons b. are rarely perfect c. are more accurate for individual items than for groups of items d. all of the above 10. One purpose of short-range forecasts is to determine a. production planning b. inventory budgets c. research and development plans d. job assignments 11. Forecasts are usually classified by time horizon into three categories a. short-range, medium-range, and long-range b. finance/accounting, marketing, and operations c. strategic, tactical, and operational d. exponential smoothing, regression, and time series 12. A forecast with a time horizon of about 3 months to 3 years is typically called a a. long-range forecast b. medium-range forecast c. short-range forecast d. weather forecast 13. Forecasts used for new product planning, capital expenditures, facility location or expansion, and R&D typically utilize a a. short-range time horizon b. medium-range time horizon c. long-range time horizon
d. naive method, because there is no data history 14. The three major types of forecasts used by business organizations are a. strategic, tactical, and operational b. economic, technological, and demand c. exponential smoothing, Delphi, and regression d. causal, time-series, and seasonal 15. Which of the following is not a step in the forecasting process? a. determine the use of the forecast b. eliminate any assumptions c. determine the time horizon d. select a forecasting model(s) 16. The two general approaches to forecasting are a. qualitative and quantitative b. mathematical and statistical c. judgmental and qualitative d. historical and associative 17. Which of the following uses three types of participants: decision makers, staff personnel, and respondents? a. executive opinions b. sales force composites c. the Delphi method d. consumer surveys 18. Which of the following is not a type of qualitative forecasting? a. executive opinions b. sales force composites
c. consumer surveys d. moving average 19. The forecasting model that pools the opinions of a group of experts or managers is known as the a. sales force composition model b. multiple regression c. jury of executive opinion model d. consumer market survey model 20. Which of the following techniques uses variables such as price and promotional expenditures, which are related to product demand, to predict demand? a. associative models b. exponential smoothing c. weighted moving average d. simple moving average Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(a) 6. (c) 7.(d) 8.(c) 9.(b) 10.(d) 11. (a) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(b) 15.(b) 16. (a) 17.(c) 18.(d) 19.(c) 20.(a)
Chapter-4: Organizing Self Assessment Questions 1. Which approach recognizes that there is no optimal organizational design? a. Contingency b. Boundless organizations c. Flexible organizations d. Virtual organizations 2. According to Burns and Stalker, which of the following is a feature of organic organizations? a. A specific hierarchical structure b. Prestige drawn from personal contribution c. Emphasis on vertical communication channels d. Knowledge requirement based on job 3. How did Lawrence and Lorsch refer to problems of trying to cope with varied environmental demands from the same department or the same demands from different departments? a. Integration failure b. Differentiation errors c. Insufficient collaboration d. Cognitive and emotional conflict 4. Which key skill was not mentioned by Kanter as needed by managers of innovative organizations? a. Communicating b. Team leading c. Political d. Coping 5. Which of the following is not true of span of control? a. The technical content of jobs has little effect on the required span of control of supervisors. b. High spans of control were found in supervision of line production. c. It is the number of subordinates who report directly to a supervisor d. The average span of control affects the number of managers. 6. How did Woodward come to suggest a normative theory about production organization?
a. Because different groups of firms had different organizational characteristics. b. Because those with leaner, shorter hierarchies performed best. c. Because the best-performing firms in each technological group had organizational characteristics that were similar to each other. d. Because it became clear that firms should adapt their organization to match process technology. 7. Structure is the pattern of relationships among positions in the organization and among members of the organization. Which of the following does structure make possible? a. The planning, organizing, directing and controlling of the activities of the organization. b. The application of the process of management. c. The creation of a framework of order and command. d. All of the above. 8. Which of the following functions may be described as 'task' functions? a. Production. b. Quality control. c. Personnel. d. All of the above. 9. Which of the following might be classified as functions of the staff organization as opposed to functions of the line organization? a. Computer support services. b. Public relations. c. Personnel. d. All of the above. 10. Which three of the following terms best describe the three levels in a hierarchical structure? a. Missionary level. b. Co-ordination level, Objective level. c. Technical level, Community level. d. Managerial level, Community level, Technical level. 11. Organizational structure is made up of key elements. Which of the following is not one of these elements? a. co-ordination b. chain of command
c. decentralization d. centralization 12. When jobs are grouped together based on a particular type of customer, this is known as: a. centralization. b. departmentalization. c. work specialization. d. job structuring. 13. Centralization refers to: a. the decision-making process. b. team decision-making. c. the geographic dispersion of an organization. d. the degree to which decision-making is concentrated at a single point in the organization. 14. In an organization that has high centralization: a. all top-level officials are located within the same geographic area. b. problems can be quickly and efficiently solved. c. decision discretion is widely dispersed throughout the organization. d. top managers make all the decisions-lower-level managers merely carry out directions. 15. The degree to which jobs within an organization are standardized is referred to as: a. centralization. b. job variation. c. job classification. d. formalization. 16. In a highly formalized organization, job behaviors are relatively: a. programmed. b. non-existent. c. nonprogramed. d. discretionary.
17. Employee discretion is inversely related to: a. complexity. b. standardization. c. technology. d. centralization. 18. Which of the following structures is characterized by centralization, high formalization, extensive departmentalization, and a limited information network? a. mechanistic model b. organic model c. job structure model d. job satisfaction model 19. If there is low formalization, a comprehensive information network and high participation in decision-making, one would expect: a. a typical government organization. b. an organic structure. c. a stable structure. d. a bureaucracy. 20. Which of the following is characterized by wide spans of control, little formalization, a low degree of departmentalization, and authority centralized in a single person? a. bureaucracy b. simple structure c. matrix organization d. team structure Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (a) 2.(b) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(a) 6. (c) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10.(d) 11. (a) 12.(c) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15.(d) 16. (a) 17.(b) 18.(a) 19.(a) 20.(a)
Chapter-5: Coordination Self Assessment Questions 1. Flatter structures generally enhance a. decision making and coordination. b. vertical communication and coordination. c. horizontal and vertical communication. d. vertical communication and coordination. 2. Co-ordination is not a function of management. a. True b. False 3. Mutual adjustment relies on to coordinate tasks. a. downward communication b. formal communication c. horizontal communication d. informal communication 4. Co-ordination is the Plus value of the group. a. True b. False 5. Which method of coordination provides the most amount of worker discretion? a. Standardization of work processes b. Mutual adjustment c. Standardization of outputs d. Standardization of skills 6. Coordination can be achieved more easily in early stages of planning and policy-making. a. True b. False
7. When a large and established firm gets into a new line of business, the new innovative unit often requires a. a more mechanistic structure. b. coordination. c. a more organic structure. d. mutual influence. 8. Coordination must start at an early stage in the management process. a. True b. False 9. All of the following are disadvantages of functional departmentation except a. poor communication within departments. b. slow responses to organizational problems. c. over-specialization. d. poor coordination. 10. Integration is an activity by companies that specialize in bringing different manufacturers products together into a smoothly working system. a. companies b. task c. organization d. None of these 11. Functional departmentation works best in a. medium to large sized firms that offer relatively few product lines or services. b. small to medium sized firms that offer many product lines or services. c. medium to large sized firms that offer many product lines or services. d. small to medium sized firms that offer relatively few product lines or services. 12. Which of the following is most accurate about the effects of downsizing? a. It does not result in cost reductions in the long-run or improvements in productivity. b. It does result in cost reductions in the long-run and improvements in productivity. c. It does result in cost reductions in the long-run but not improvements in productivity. d. It does not result in cost reductions in the short-run or improvements in productivity.
13. A price-skimming strategy involves charging high prices for a product, particularly during the introductory phase. a. True b. False 14. When faced with serious decline, organizations have a tendency to become a. less organic. b. more mechanistic. c. more organic. d. less mechanistic. 15. A question for business level strategy would be: a) Which industries do we want to be in? b) How should the businesses be related? c) How should the business compete in its market? d) How should resources be shared amongst the businesses? 16. Which of Porter's generic strategies is Easyjet following? a) Differentiation b) Cost leadership c) Cost focus d) Hybrid 17. A differentiation strategy offers: a) A broad segment something unique b) A narrow segment something unique c) A broad segment something more expensive d) A narrow segment something more expensive 18. Kim and Mauborgne (2005) argue that organizations should try to capture uncontested market space. These uncontested markets are known as:
a) Blue skies b) Blue oceans c) White skies d) Fresh snows 19. is the process in which several steps in the production and/or distribution of a product or service are controlled by a single company or entity, in order to increase that company s or entity s power in the marketplace. a. Horizontal integration b. Vertical integration c. Organization d. None of these 20. simply means a strategy to increase your market share by taking over a similar company. a. Horizontal integration b. Vertical integration c. Organization d. None of these Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (a) 2.(b) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6. (a) 7.(c) 8.(a) 9.(a) 10.(a) 11. (a) 12.(d) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(c) 16. (b) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(a)
Chapter-6: Organizational Behavior Self Assessment Questions 1. Concerning organizational cultures, a. a strong culture is a more productive environment b. a weak culture is a more productive environment c. the specific culture that contributes to positive effectiveness is well known d. the stronger the culture, the more influential it is on employee behavior 2. Shared organizational values are a. unconscious, affective desires or wants that guide society's behavior b. influenced by international values c. different for the various components of a diverse work force d. a myth 3. Which of the following best explains why an employee behaves as s/he does? a. The environment is the most important consideration in understanding individual employee behavior. b. Both the environment and individual differences are important considerations in understanding individual employee behavior. c. Neither the environment nor individual differences are important considerations in understanding individual employee behavior. d. Employee personality and attitudes are primarily dictated by the environment. 4. Motivation is important to managers because a. it is a significant contributor to high performance b. it does not explain the differences in intensity of behavior c. it explains the differences in attitude and personality d. not all employees know how to use it effectively
5. Considering extrinsic rewards, a. money modifies behavior irrespective of the perceptions and preferences of the person being rewarded b. recognition is a powerful motivating reward for everyone c. upper management compensation is a strong incentive for lower-level employees to work harder d. benefits are usually based on longevity, not performance 6. In order from lowest to highest, what are Maslow's five classes of needs? a. Social-esteem-physiological-safety-self-actualization b. Physiological-safety-social-self-actualization-esteem c. Physiological-safety-social-esteem-self-actualization d. Self-actualization-esteem-safety-social-physiological 7. A lack of clarity concerning what will happen is referred to as a. temporal b. predisposition c. uncertainty d. negation 8. Employees with relatively weak higher-order needs are concerned with variety and autonomy. a. less b. more c. very d. extremely 9. Which of the following is a strategy of job design that increases job depth by meeting employees needs for psychological growth? a. Job rotation b. Job enrichment
c. Job enlargement d. Job enrichment and job enlargement 10. What is the key word in understanding organization structure? a. Control b. Change c. Process d. Delegation 11. Organization structures a. affect group behavior more than individual behavior b. change rapidly to meet environmental and market changes c. contribute positively to organizational performance d. can be defined simply as activities that occur regularly 12. Groups created by managerial decision in order to accomplish stated goals of the organization are called a. formal groups b. informal groups c. task groups d. interest groups 13. Continued membership in a group will usually require a. supporting the group leader b. conforming to group norms c. encouraging cohesiveness in the group d. developing a status system 14. Which of the following is true of managers in relationship to conflict?
a. Managers generally encourage low levels of conflict because it improves performance, up to a certain point. b. Managers generally ignore conflict. c. Managers attempt to eliminate conflict because the organization rewards them for keeping conflict out of their area of responsibility. d. Managers show no consistent attitude toward conflict. 15. It appears that a. successful leaders tend to be more intelligent than followers b. there is no link between intelligence of the leader and success c. intelligence is the most important "ability" trait in leaders d. persons with creativity make the best leaders 16. Concerning leadership concepts, a. leader roles are unnecessary in organizations like Gore-Tex, where a self-leadership approach is used b. it is likely that a particular set of leader characteristics and behaviors do suit specific situations and groups c. it is likely that the need for leaders will decline in the 21 st century due to more decentralized structures d. the military model of leadership will become more popular in the 21 st century 17. The definition of communication implies that a. communication is mostly verbal b. communication is mostly written c. most communication is in a vertical direction d. understanding must occur to have communication 18. The LEAST-used communication channel in an organization is usually a. upward b. downward
c. diagonal d. horizontal 19. Specific procedures developed for repetitive and routine problems are a. autocratic decisions b. programmed decisions c. easy decisions d. non-programmed decisions 20. An important potential environmental source of change is a. a new competitive product b. dissatisfied employee attitudes c. employee grievances d. a wildcat strike Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (d) 2.(c) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6. (c) 7.(c) 8.(a) 9.(b) 10.(a) 11. (d) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(c) 15.(a) 16. (b) 17.(d) 18.(d) 19.(b) 20.(a)
Chapter-7: Formal and Informal Organization Self Assessment Questions 1. Which is not an example of a type of interpersonal power? a. Knowledge power b. Legitimate power c. Expert power d. Reward power 2. Formal organization is not a fixed set of rules of intra-organization procedures and structures. a. True b. False 3. Informal organization is the interlocking social structure that governs how people work together in practice. a. True b. False 4. A person's ability to impose an unpleasant action on another refers to which type of power? a. Decision-making power b. Network power c. Coercive power d. Referent power 5. Disadvantage of informal Groups. a. Resistance to change b. Role conflict c. Rumor d. All of above 6. Key characteristics of the formal organization a. enduring, unless deliberately altered b. top-down c. static d. All of above
7. Which of these is not listed as type of situational or structural power? a. Knowledge power b. Reward power c. Network power d. Decision-making power 8. The process by which alliances and contacts are established both inside and outside the organization is known as? a. Expert power b. Decision-making power c. Networking. d. Reward power 9. Power is the ability to influence the behavior of others a. True b. False 10. Referent power refers to a person's capacity to influence others owing to specific skills and abilities. a. True b. False 11. Knowledge power is a type of situational and structural power. a. True b. False 12. When used effectively, empowerment strategies can lead to increased employee motivation and job satisfaction. a. True b. False 13. Which of the following strategic contingencies refers to the extent to which you perform a function that is vital to the organization? a. Nonsubstitutability b. A high degree of centrality c. The ability to cope with uncertainty
d. None of the above 14. Which empowerment strategy is defined as being appealing to personal values and ideas? a. Ingratiation b. Inspirational appeal c. Rational persuasion d. Assertiveness 15. Which type of conflict occurs when two or more people perceive goals, attitudes, values, and behavior differently? a. Intrapersonal b. Interorganizational c. Intragroup d. Interpersonal 16. Interpersonal conflict occurs when a person is confronted with several mutually exclusive options and has difficulty making a decision. a. True b. False 17. Intraorganizational conflict occurs when there is disagreement in an organization, either within or between levels. a. True b. False 18. Which is not a structural factor of organizational conflict? a. Goal differences b. Status differences c. Specialization d. Skills and abilities 19. Which conflict management technique focusses on satisfying mutual interests? a. Collaborating b. Compromising c. Avoiding d. Forcing
20. Difficult people who constantly criticize, yet rarely take action to improve things would be in which category? a. Negativists b. Clams c. Indecisive stallers d. Complainers Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (a) 2.(b) 3.(a) 4.(c) 5.(d) 6. (d) 7.(b) 8.(c) 9.(a) 10.(b) 11. (a) 12.(a) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(d) 16. (b) 17.(a) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20.(d) Chapter-8: Individual Behavior Self Assessment Questions
1. Which answer best describes an example of an environmental factor that effects personality traits individuals develop? a. Group Membership b. Family c. Culture d. All of the above 2. Which is not an example of a personality trait associated with political behavior? a. Need for Power b. Machiavellianism c. Willingness to take risks d. Dogmatism 3. Personality can be defined as a set of relatively stable characteristics that influences a person s behavior. a. True b. False 4. Heredity is the only determinant of the personality traits an individual will develop. a. True b. False 5. Which is not a component of attitudes? a. Affective b. Cognitive c. Behavioral d. Perception 6. is an oversimplified mental picture that is associate with a particular group. a. Perceptual barrier b. Stereotype c. Halo effect d. Selective Perception 7. An individual s belief concerning the ability to accomplish a job task is the definition of: a. Self-efficacy
b. Organizational commitment c. Self-monitoring d. Affect 8. Attitudes are enduring feelings, beliefs, and/or behavior tendencies. a. True b. False 9. Job satisfaction is a positive emotional state resulting from an individual s opinion of the job. a. True b. False 10. The attribution process is the process through which people receive, organize, and interpret information about their environment. a. True b. False 11. Which characteristic is not typical of Machiavellianism? a. Being extremely loyal b. Distrusting others c. Manipulating others for personal or political gain d. Employing deceit in interpersonal relationships 12. Which of these is not a factor, listed in the book, which influences the relationship between attitudes and behavior? a. Specificity of the attitude b. Fear of consequences c. Personality d. Self-efficacy 13. A characteristic that influences the way they perceive others is: a. Attitudes b. Self-concept c. Thinking pattern d. All of the above 14. means paying attention to information that supports your ideas and ignoring the rest. a. Projection
b. Halo effect c. Selective perception d. Stereotype 15. SHRM is also about strategic choice, which refers to: a) The processes and decisions that shape the organization s philosophy towards its employees b) Managerial prerogative in decision making c) Negotiating with trade unions or employee associations over the direction of the organization d) Giving employees their 'say' in organizational concerns 16. Extroverts tend to be shy and inward looking, introverts tend to be outgoing and concerned with external things. a. True b. False 17. If an employee has continuance commitment they will stay with the company because of their strong desire to do so and their belief in the goals and values of the organization. a. True b. False 18. Perception is the process through which people receive, organize, and interpret information about their environment. a. True b. False 19. Do HR activities have an effect on employee and managerial behavior? a) Yes, but these effects can be negative as well as positive b) HR has limited impact on either employee behavior or managerial c) HR impacts on employee behavior but not on managerial d) No, it is managerial behavior which impacts on HR
20. The view that employees are critical to organizational success is now generally accepted. Does this mean that. a) All employees have the same value or potential for the organization b) It reflects the unprecedented success of HR practitioners to deliver c) Good management of people will prevail d) Managing the human resource has become even more important because it is the one resource most difficult to replicate Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (a) 2.(d) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(d) 6. (b) 7.(a) 8.(a) 9.(a) 10.(b) 11. (a) 12.(d) 13.(d) 14.(c) 15.(a) 16. (b) 17.(b) 18.(a) 19.(a) 20.(d) Chapter-9: Centralization and Decentralization Self Assessment Questions 1. A firm's may be expressed formally through its mission statement or code of ethics.
a. policies b. culture c. vision d. strategy 2. The key to success in any organization is satisfying a. employees b. markets c. government d. stakeholders 3. involves the division of labor into individual tasks. a. segmentation b. empowerment c. unity of command d. specialization 4. involves the grouping of jobs into working units. a. segmentation b. departmentalization c. empowerment d. unity of command 5. Finance, marketing, and human resources are examples of departmentalization. a. geographical b. customer c. functional d. production 6. corporations often use geographical departmentalization.
a. outsourcing b. foreign c. U.S. d. multinational 7. Customer departmentalization arranges jobs based on the of various customer groups. a. niches b. demographics c. needs d. location 8. The extent to which authority is delegated throughout an organization determines its degree of. a. decentralization b. centralization c. power d. empowerment 9. Centralization and decentralization are very important concepts of organization. a. True b. False 10. is characteristic of organizations that operate in complex, unpredictable environments. a. decentralization b. centralization c. power d. empowerment 11. Decentralization requires that lower-level managers have strong skills. a. people b. financial c. mentoring d. decision-making
12. A span of management exists when a manager supervises a very large number of employees. a. good b. flawed c. stretched d. wide 13. Organizations with few layers are considered and as a consequence have spans of management. a. wide; tall b. tall; narrow c. flat; wide d. flat; narrow 14. The simplest organizational structure is a structure, with direct lines of authority from the top to the lowest level of the organization. a. staff b. line c. line-and-staff d. division 15. In organizations, employees may lack the authority to carry out certain decisions. a. staff b. line c. line-and-staff d. division 16. Decentralized organization it is also essential to adopt the democratic norms. a. True b. False
17. A task force is a group of employees responsible for bringing about a particular change. a. virtual b. temporary c. managerial d. low-level 18. teams frequently include people from numerous functional areas, formed specifically to devise, design and implement a new product. a. project b. quality-assurance c. task force d. product-development teams 19. Decentralization provides a positive climate where there is freedom to make decisions, freedom to use judgment and freedom to act. a. True b. False 20. Decentralization is not effective for the organizations, which have operations in different locations. a. True b. False Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (b) 2.(d) 3.(d) 4.(b) 5.(c) 6. (d) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(a) 11. (d) 12.(d) 13.(c) 14.(b) 15.(c) 16. (a) 17.(b) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20.(b) Chapter-10 Controlling 1. Information must be collected, routed, and evaluated quickly if action is to be taken in time to produce improvements.
a. Accurate b. Timely c. Objective and Comprehensible d. None of these 2. Assembly-line technology is changing dramatically as organizations.. a. develop new products for the market b. replace human labor with robots c. replace old manually controlled machines with newer machines d. find new markets for their products 3. Controls must have flexibility built into them so that the organizations can react quickly to overcome adverse changes or to take advantage of new opportunities. a. Accurate b. Timely c. Flexible d. None of these 4. Standards expressed in general terms should be avoided. Standards need to be flexible in order to adapt to changing conditions. a. True b. False 5. Which of the following is not an internal force of change? a. technology b. strategy c. workforce d. employee attitudes 6. Market control assumes.. a) prices and competition. b) the existence of a legitimate hierarchy of authority. c) norms and values to which organizational members conform. d) Prices and competition, the existence of a legitimate hierarchy of authority, and norms and values to which organizational members conform. 7. For an organization to effectively exercise clan control it must have:
a) prices and competition. b) rules and hierarchy of authority. c) norms and values to which organizational members conform. d) Prices and competition, rules and hierarchy of authority, and norms and values to which organizational members conform. 8. The feminist perspective contributed which of the following dimensions of power that has previously not been considered by organization theorists? a) Domination/submission b) Autonomy/dependence c) Oppressors/oppressed d) Masculine/feminine 9. In the Walton and Dutton model, what is the least likely single explanation for any given instance of interpersonal conflict in an organization? a) Individual differences b) Common resources c) Communication obstacles d) Goal incompatibility 10. Cybernetic control systems help organizations realize their strategies by aligning: a) behavioral and output measures. b) strategies, goals and actions. c) culture with social structure. d) the interests of managers with those of owners (shareholders). 11. Corrective action should be taken without wasting of time so that the normal position can be restored quickly. a. True b. False 12. According to agency theory, organizations achieve high levels of performance by aligning.. a) behavioral and output measures. b) strategies, goals and actions. c) culture with social structure. d) the interests of managers with those of owners (shareholders).
13. An organization's process strategy a) will have long-run impact on efficiency and production b) is the same as its transformation strategy c) must meet various constraints, including cost d) all of these 14. A job shop is an example of a(n) a. repetitive process b. continuous process c. line process d. intermittent process 15. Three types of process strategies are. a. goods, services, and hybrids b. manual, automated, and service c. process focus, repetitive focus, and product focus d. modular, continuous, and technological 16. Which of the following products is likely to be assembled on a repetitive process line? a. automobiles b. dishwashers c. television sets d. all of these 17. Concurrent controls monitor ongoing employee activity to ensure consistency with quality standards. a. True b. False 18. Control system should be flexible so that it remains workable in the case of changed plans, unforeseen circumstances or failures. a. Flexible b. Economical c. Motivating d. None of these
19. Financial statements provide management with information to monitor financial resources and activities. a. True b. False 20. Managers develop each new budget by justifying the projected allocation against its contribution to departmental or organizational goals. a. Flexible budgeting b. Top-down budgeting c. Zero-based budgeting d. None of these Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (b) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(a) 6. (a) 7.(c) 8. (d) 9.(a) 10.(a) 11.(a) 12.(d) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c) Chapter-11: Human Resource Management
Self Assessment Questions 1. are the resources that provide utility value to all other resources. a. Men b. Material c. Money d. Machinery 2. The term procurement stands for a. recruitment and selection b. training and development c. pay and benefits d. health and safety 3. The characteristics of human resources are in nature a. homogeneous b. heterogeneous c. ductility d. None of the above 4. Identify the managerial function out of the following functions of HR managers. a. procurement b. development c. organizing d. performance appraisal 5. Which of the following is an example of operative function of HR managers? a. planning b. organizing c. procurement d. controlling 6. The scope of human resource management includes a. procurement b. development c. compensation d. All of the above
7. Human resource management is normally in nature. a. proactive b. reactive c. combative d. None of the above 8. The human resource management functions aim at a. ensuring that the human resources possess adequate capital, tool, equipment and material to perform the job successfully b. helping the organization deal with its employees in different stages of employment c. improving an organization s creditworthiness among financial institutions d. None of the above 9. Which of the following aptly describes the role of line managers and staff advisors, namely HR professionals? a. Staff advisors focus more on developing HR programs while line managers are more involved in the implementation of those programs. b. Line managers are concerned more about developing HR programs whereas staff advisors are more involved in implementing such programs. c. Staff advisors are solely responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the HR programs while line managers are not all involved in any matters concerning HR. d. Line managers alone are responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the HR programs while staff advisors are not all involved in any matters concerning HR. 10. What is the meaning of the acronym HRM? a. Human Relations Management. b. Humane Resource Management. c. Humanistic Resource Management. d. Human Resource Management. 11. Which of the following terms was also used before the language of modern HRM? Select all that apply. a. Labor relations. b. Personnel management. c. Personal management. d. Industrial relations.
12. What is meant by the acronym SHRM? a. Soft Human Resource Management. b. Strategic Human Resource Management. c. Sophisticated Human Resource Management. d. Superior Human Resource Management. 13. What is meant by the acronym HCM? a. High Calibre Management. b. High Class Management. c. High Capability Management. d. High Commitment Management. 14. Which of the following is not a function normally performed by the HR department? a. Pay and reward. b. Recruitment and selection. c. Employee relations. d. Accounting. 15. It has been said that some HR departments have had a 'Cinderella' image. What is meant by this statement? a. Influential and powerful. b. Low status and obscure. c. Bureaucratic. d. Old fashioned and staid. 16. How long has the term 'HRM' been fashionable? a. The last 100 years. b. The last twenty years. c. The last forty years. d. The last five years. 17. In the 'matching model' of HRM, what is meant by 'Cost driven HRM'? a. Where a strategic planning process exists, but people are viewed as a cost. b. Where a strategic planning process does not exist, and people are viewed as a cost. c. Where a strategic planning process exists, and people are viewed as a resource. d. Where a strategic planning process does not exist, but people are viewed as a resource.
18. Human resource management is the formal part of an organization responsible for all of the following aspects of the management of human resources except: a. management of the organization s finances b. policy making, implementation, and enforcement c. strategy development and analysis d. systems, processes, and procedures 19. The field of HRM was founded on the idea that the competitive advantage of the organization relies on the following sources of capital: a. cultural, human and system capital b. social, cultural and human capital c. organization relies on the following sources of capital: d. cultural, human and source capital 20. To address the challenges and opportunities they face organizations engage in a process of strategic management. Strategic management is: a. short-term focused and composed of organizational strategy, including strategy formulation and implementation b. long-term focused and composed of the organization s mission, vision and value statements c. short-term focused and composed of the organization s mission, vision and value statements d. long-term focused and composed of organizational strategy, including strategy formulation and implementation Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(c) 6. (d) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(d) 11. (b) 12.(b) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15.(b) 16. (b) 17.(a) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20.(a) Chapter-12: Values, Attitudes and Job Satisfaction Self Assessment Questions
1. represent basic convictions that a specific mode of conduct or end state of existence is personally or socially preferable to an opposite mode of conduct. a. Values b. Attitudes c. Convictions d. Preferences 2. The content attribute states a value is: a. complete. b. important. c. a basic conviction. d. related to behavior. 3. When we rank an individual s values in terms of his/her, we obtain the person s value system. a. intensity b. content c. context d. social acceptance 4. Values are best described as: a. flexible. b. synonymous with attitudes. c. consistent among occupational groups. d. fairly stable over time. 5. Values generally influence attitudes and behavior a. True b. False
6. Rokeach found that the instrumental value of ambitious (hardworking and aspiring) people was related to the terminal value of: a. a comfortable life. b. freedom. c. happiness. d. self-respect. 7. According to Rokeach, values refer to desirable end-states of existence. a. instrumental b. aesthetic c. theoretical d. terminal 8. In contrasting values and attitudes, which one of the following is true? a. They come from different sources. b. There is no significant correlation between the two. c. Attitudes are more stable than values. d. Values are more stable than attitudes. 9. The belief that discrimination is wrong is a value statement. Such an opinion is the component of an attitude. a. cognitive b. affective c. reactive d. behavioral 10. The component is the emotional or feeling segment of an attitude. a. affective b. cognitive c. behavioral