Practice Test #2 True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Colony size is dependent on many characterisitics. One of these is the type of organism. 2. Colony size is dependent on many characterisitics. One of these is the growth medium. 3. Colony size is dependent on many characterisitics. One of these is the culture medium characteristics. 4. Possible colony textures include; shiny to dull, smooth to wrinkled, rough, granular, and mucoid. 5. Elevation is the cross sectional shape of the colony. 6. Color is also called Chromogenesis (pigmentation). 7. Colonies can vary in their elevations both between microorganisms and growth conditions, and within individual colonies themselves. 8. Colony morphology is a way scientists can identify bacteria. 9. PCR stands for Polymerase Chain Reaction. 10. PCR is used to separate DNA according to size. 11. DNA gel electrophoresis is the process that can be used to make a DNA fingerprint. 12. Restriction enzymes are used to make copies of the DNA in PCR. Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 13. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of bacterial colonies that can be used to identify a bacteria? a. Colony size: e. Flavor b. Margin f. Elevation c. Color g. Shape d. Texture 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of Light Transmission: a. transparent (clear) e. Translucent b. opaque f. All of these. c. frosted g. None of these. d. iridescent 15. One descriptive prefix for the bacteria in the picture below would be:
a. Diplo c. Strepto b. Tetra d. Staphlo 16. One descriptive prefix for the bacteria in the picture below would be: a. Diplo c. Strepto b. Tetra d. Staphlo 17. Which of the descriptive prefixes below would be best to use for the following picture? a. Diplo c. Strepto b. Tetra d. Staphlo 18. The T steaking method is used for doing what? HINT: look at the picture below: a. Measuring size in a microscope. b. Setting up a gram stain. c. Streaking bacteria onto an agar plate. d. Locating organisms in a microscope s field-of-view. 19. What is the tool pictured below called?
a. Scoop b. Innoculating Loop c. Wire Loop d. That thing we get to use to play with fire. 20. The recipe on a bottle of powdered agar says to mix 25 g of powder with every 75 ml of distilled water. How much agar would you need to make 110 ml of agar? a. 36.67 g d. 27.5 g b. 3.7 g e. The answer is not here c. 2,750 g 21. The recipe on a bottle of powdered agar says to mix 25 g of powder with every 75 ml of distilled water. How much agar would you need to make 517 ml of agar? a. 17.23 g c. 155.1 g b. 1,551 g d. 172.33 g 22. The recipe on a bottle of powdered agar says to mix 34 g of powder with every 115 ml of distilled water. How much agar would you need to make 312 ml of agar? a. 105.52 g c. 922.43 g b. 92.24 g d. 1055.29 g 23. The recipe on a bottle of powdered agar says to mix 12 g of powder with every 25 ml of distilled water. How much agar would you need to make 850 ml of agar? a. 1770.83 g c. 408.00 g b. 40.8 g d. 177.08 g 24. In gel electrophoresis, the smaller the DNA fragments, the they are to/from the wells. a. Closer c. More negative b. Farther d. More positive 25. In DNA, adenine pairs with. a. Cytosine c. Uracil b. Guanine d. Thyamine 26. In DNA, cytosine pairs with. a. Adenine c. Uracil b. guanine d. Thyamine 27. The name of the process where DNA copies itself is called: a. Transcription c. Replication b. Translation d. Polymerasing 28. Why must the original DNA be denatured before PCR can take place? a. The make extra nucelotides to be used in copying it. b. To allow the DNA to leave the nucleus. c. To separate the 2 backbones of the DNA, to allow it to replicate.
d. Because DNA needs to be cut up in order to separate them by size. 29. What is the charge of the colored dyes used in our electrophoresis of food coloring? a. Positive c. Negative b. Neutral 30. In gel electrophoresis, what would happen to the samples if the gel were flipped around so that the sample wells were put closest to the positive (red) electrode, instead of the negative (black) electrode? a. Nothing would change. b. The DNA would run in the opposite direction, an no band patterns would be created. c. The longer pieces of DNA would now move further. d. All of the DNA would move to the same place in the gell. 31. In DNA extraction, what is the primary purpose of the lysis (25% dishwashing soap) buffer? a. To make the DNA soluable in the water. b. To break the DNA up so it can be separated by size. c. To break up the cell membrane and nuclear membrane to allow the DNA to leave the cell. d. To create foam that allows the DNA to separate. 32. Introns (are) a. the regions of genes to which transcription factors bind to control transcription. b. the regions of genes that code for amino acid sequences of proteins. c. the same as enhancers. d. do not code for anything and are cut out of messenger RNA before it leaves the nucleus for translation. e. tiny robots used for microsurgery. Multiple Response Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question. 33. What are the materials used to make the gel for electrophoresis? (Choose 2) a. Agarose c. Salt Water b. Water d. TAE Buffer 34. List two ways that electrophoresis separates DNA samples a. Length c. Depth b. Charge d. Color Matching Match the colony shape depicted below with its correct name. a. Circular c. Irregular b. Filimentous d. Punctiform 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. Match the type of colony MARGIN EDGE with its correct name. a. Lobate e. Errose b. Entire f. Curled c. Undulate g. Scalloped d. Filimentous 40. 41. 42.
43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. Match these colony profiles with their correct name. To give you a point of reference, this is a flat colony: a. Flat e. Raised Margin b. Raised f. Crateriform.
c. Convex g. Pulvinate d. Umbonate 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. Tell whether the bacteria in the picture below are gram positive or gram negative: a. Gram-Positive b. Gram-Negative 60.
61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67.
Match the parts of the gram staining process in the diagram below with their correct description or the correct substance used at that particular point. a. Counter Stain is used. f. Iodine b. Decolorization is done. g. Crystal Violet c. Mordent is used. h. Initial stain is applied. d. Fixation to the slide is done. i. Ethanol e. Safranin 68. What is happening at Point #1? 69. What SUBSTANCE is being used at point #2? 70. What is happening at Point #2? 71. What SUBSTANCE is being used at point #3? 72. What is happening at Point #3? 73. What SUBSTANCE is being used at point #4? 74. What is happening at Point #4? 75. What SUBSTANCE is being used at point #5? 76. What is happening at Point #5? Match each bacteria or bacterial drawing with the correct name of its shape. a. Staphlococcus e. Tetracoccus b. Coccus f. Streptobacillus c. Streptococcus g. Bacillus d. Diplococcus h. Spirillum / Spirochetes 77. 78.
79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87.
88. Match the correct dye with the questions below (these pertain to the electrophoresis of food coloring): a. Red d. Green b. Orange e. Blue c. Yellow f. Purple 89. Which colored dye moved the farthest distance through the gel? 90. Which colored dye moved the shortest distance through the gel? 91. Which colored dye is the smallest in size? 92. Which colored dye is the largest in size?
Practice Test #2 Answer Section TRUE/FALSE 1. ANS: T PTS: 1 2. ANS: T PTS: 1 3. ANS: T PTS: 1 4. ANS: T PTS: 1 5. ANS: T PTS: 1 6. ANS: T PTS: 1 7. ANS: T PTS: 1 8. ANS: T PTS: 1 9. ANS: T PTS: 1 10. ANS: F PTS: 1 11. ANS: T PTS: 1 12. ANS: F PTS: 1 MULTIPLE CHOICE 13. ANS: E PTS: 1 14. ANS: C PTS: 1 15. ANS: B PTS: 1 16. ANS: A PTS: 1 17. ANS: C PTS: 1 18. ANS: C PTS: 1 19. ANS: B PTS: 1 20. ANS: A PTS: 1 21. ANS: D PTS: 1 22. ANS: B PTS: 1 23. ANS: C PTS: 1 24. ANS: A PTS: 1 25. ANS: D PTS: 1 26. ANS: B PTS: 1 27. ANS: C PTS: 1 28. ANS: C PTS: 1 29. ANS: C PTS: 1 30. ANS: B PTS: 1 31. ANS: C PTS: 1 32. ANS: D PTS: 1 MULTIPLE RESPONSE 33. ANS: A, D PTS: 1 34. ANS: A, B PTS: 1
MATCHING 35. ANS: C PTS: 1 36. ANS: A PTS: 1 37. ANS: B PTS: 1 38. ANS: D PTS: 1 39. ANS: C PTS: 1 40. ANS: E PTS: 1 41. ANS: A PTS: 1 42. ANS: C PTS: 1 43. ANS: D PTS: 1 44. ANS: B PTS: 1 45. ANS: F PTS: 1 46. ANS: A PTS: 1 47. ANS: C PTS: 1 48. ANS: B PTS: 1 49. ANS: A PTS: 1 50. ANS: G PTS: 1 51. ANS: B PTS: 1 52. ANS: A PTS: 1 53. ANS: F PTS: 1 54. ANS: D PTS: 1 55. ANS: E PTS: 1 56. ANS: C PTS: 1 57. ANS: D PTS: 1 58. ANS: G PTS: 1 59. ANS: C PTS: 1 60. ANS: B PTS: 1 61. ANS: A PTS: 1 62. ANS: A PTS: 1 63. ANS: B PTS: 1 64. ANS: A PTS: 1 65. ANS: B PTS: 1 66. ANS: A PTS: 1 67. ANS: B PTS: 1 68. ANS: D PTS: 1 69. ANS: G PTS: 1 70. ANS: H PTS: 1 71. ANS: F PTS: 1 72. ANS: C PTS: 1 73. ANS: I PTS: 1 74. ANS: B PTS: 1
75. ANS: E PTS: 1 76. ANS: A PTS: 1 77. ANS: B PTS: 1 78. ANS: C PTS: 1 79. ANS: E PTS: 1 80. ANS: A PTS: 1 81. ANS: D PTS: 1 82. ANS: C PTS: 1 83. ANS: F PTS: 1 84. ANS: D PTS: 1 85. ANS: G PTS: 1 86. ANS: F PTS: 1 87. ANS: G PTS: 1 88. ANS: H PTS: 1 89. ANS: C PTS: 1 90. ANS: E PTS: 1 91. ANS: C PTS: 1 92. ANS: E PTS: 1