PMP Sample Questions www.techfaq360.com Click here for 1600+ PMP Questions Question No : 1 Which of the following is an output of Define Scope? A. Accepted deliverables B. Change Requests C. Project document updates. D. Project scope statement Project scope statement is an output of Define Scope. Question No : 2 Which of the following is an output of Verify Scope? A. Accepted deliverables B. Change Requests C. Project document updates. D. All of the above All are output of verify scope. Question No : 3 You are a project manager of ABC Company and your project is currently in an execution phase. The customer has requested you for additional work. This work will affect the budget but not the schedule of the project. What should you do next? A. add the additional requirements to the project plan. B. Ignore the request C. Explain the change procedure and ask to submit a request for change. D. Discuss with the project team about the change. Explain the change procedure and ask to submit a request for change is the best choice. Question No : 4 You are the project manager for a project. While reviewing the cost estimates for the project you notice that one of the cost estimates for an element in the WBS is
20% higher than the previous project for very similar work. What should you do next? A. Accept the estimate B. Ask the person responsible about the difference C. Ignore it D. Reduce the estimate Best option is ask the person responsible about the difference and create the most accurate estimate that is practical. Question No : 5 Your company policy allows to gift exchange with customer within certain limit. By Mistake, you have given a gift to the customer's representative already which is beyond the limit mentioned in your company policy. What should you do? A. Forget it and don't tell anyone. B. Contact your company's senior management and ask for assistance. C. Ask your customer to return the gift D. Ask your customer to gift you which cost same. Best option is Contact your company's senior management and ask for assistance. Question No : 6 Your company policy allows accepting gifts from customer within certain limit. Your customer is giving you a gift which is beyond limit of your company policy. You have given a gift to the customer's representative already with of similar value. What should you do? A. Accept it and don't tell anyone. B. Contact your company's senior management and ask for assistance. C. Ask your customer to about company policy. D. Refuse it. Best option is Contact your company's senior management and ask for assistance. Question No : 7 You are a project manager of Software Product Company. After hired a person you got to know that many of this person's ideas were developed by the competing company. Are you going to implement the same ideas?
A. Accept the new ideas. B. Ignore the ideas because it may be violation of code of conduct. C. Ask to sign NDA. D. Tell the person that he should not mention that the ideas came from another company. Unless the employee signed the NDA with his or her previous organization, there is no obligation for him or her not to share knowledge that was gained while working for the competitor. Question No : 8 Which of the following processes involves measure project and product scope performance and managing scope baseline changes? A. Collect Requirements B. Define Scope C. Verify scope. D. Control scope The control scope process involves measure project and product scope performance and managing scope baseline changes. Question No : 9 A single source seller is. A. There is only one seller the company wants to do business with. B. There is only one qualified seller. C. There is only one seller in the market. D. There are many seller in the market A single source seller is only one seller the company wants to do business with. Question No : 10 In which type of organization, the project manager has total control of projects? A. Projectized organization B. Balanced Matrix organization C. Strong Matrix D. Weak Matrix organization
Projectized organization : The project manager has total control of projects. Personnel are assigned and report to a project manager. Question No : 11 At which stage, stakeholders have maximum influence on project? A. Initial stage B. Closing stage C. Execution stage D. Control stage It is easy to make changes to project goals and approach at the initial stage. Stake holders have maximum influence at Initial stage. Question No : 12 Reserve Analysis technique NOT used during. A. Control Costs B. Estimating Activity Duration C. Determine Budget D. Estimate Costs Reserve analysis is used during Estimate Costs to calculate contingency buffers that apply to individual or group of activities. Reserve analysis is used during Determine Budget to calculate management contingency buffers that apply to the entire project. Reserve analysis is done during Activity Duration estimation in order to calculate duration buffers for individual or group of activities. Question No : 13 Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of: A. Develop Project Management Plan process B. Control Costs process C. Determine Budget process D. Estimate Costs process There is no separate process in the Project Cost Estimation knowledge area to develop a cost management plan. It is devloped in Develop Project Management Plan process.
Question No : 14 Analogous Estimate Costs is. A. Generally Accurate B. Generally less accurate C. Bottom-up estimating D. Top-up estimating Analogous Estimate Costs is Generally less accurate. Analogous Estimate Costs Uses Expert Judgment. It is used when reference projects are similar. It is useful in early phases of the project. Question No : 15 Which of the following Enterprises Environmental factors is not input for Develop Human Resource Plan processes: A. Organizational Chart Tempates B. Reduced Training Funds C. Hiring Freeze D. Technical competencies of project staff Enterprise Environmental Factors: The definition of project roles and responsibilities is developed with an understanding of the ways that existing organizations will be involved and how the technical disciplines and people currently interact with one another. Inputs are Reduced Training Funds, Technical competencies of project staff and Hiring Freeze etc. Question No : 16 Which of the following is most important element of Project Management Plan that is useful in Develop A Human Resource Plan process: A. Risk Management activities B. Activity Resource requirements C. Budget Control activities D. Quality Assurance activities Activity Resource requirements is a primary input to Develop Human Resource Plan process.
Question No : 17 Which of the following is not used to document team member roles and responsibilities? A. Text-oriented Format B. Functional Chart C. Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart D. Matrix-based Responsibility Chart Functional Chart is not listed in PMBOK as a type of Organizational Chart Question No : 18 Which of the following is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete project activities. A. Resource planning B. Estimate Costs C. Determine Budget D. Control Costs Estimate Costs:Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service Question No : 19 Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan. A. Stakeholder requirements B. Project performance C. Control Schedule D. Project controls Project performance must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan. Question No : 20 Which of the following is ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service? A. Project scope B. Project verification
C. Project control D. Product scope Project verification ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service Question No : 21 A process that is not part of Project Risk Management is: A. Identification B. Solicitation C. Quantification D. Response Development All are part of Project Risk Management except Solicitation. Question No : 22 The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions is: A. Project scope B. Project verification C. Project control D. Product scope Project Scope: The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions. Question No : 23 With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is. A. 30.0 B. 22.5 C. 25.0 D. 27.5 mean = (20+30+40)/3= 30
Question No : 24 The scope management provides: A. A basis for future decisions about the project. B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures. C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes. D. All of the above. Project Scope Management is a group of processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project. Question No : 25 Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be used to: A. See what mistakes others have made B. See how others have solved problems C. "Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives" D. All of the above All of the above Question No : 26 The major project scope management processes include: A. Change order control B. Initiation C. Program evaluation D. Scope statement Initiation included in major project scope management processes Question No : 27 A graphic display of resource usage hours is: A. Organizational chart B. Responsibility matrix C. WBS D. Histogram
histogram that is useful in determining how much time is expected from the various team members and or functions. Question No : 28 Which of the following is an input to resource planning? A. Historical information B. Cost baseline C. Cost management plan D. Chart of accounts Develop Human Resource Plan Inputs : Enterprise Environmental Factors, Historical information, Organizational Process Assets and Project Management plan. Question No : 29 Which of the following tools or techniques are not used in Sequence Activities? A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) B. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) C. Expert judgment D. Network templates Expert judgment is not used in Sequence Activities. Sequence Activities : Identifying and documenting interactivity logical relationships. Question No : 30 Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP. A. Project Management Policy of Ethics B. Project Management Professional Standards C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics and Standards D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by PMI. Question No : 31
Which of the following ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary. A. Project controls B. Controlling process C. Control logs D. Project chart Controlling process ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary. Question No : 32 An example of a project is: A. Billing customers B. Managing an organization C. Constructing a building D. Providing technical support An example of a project is Constructing a building. Question No : 33 Inputs to Team Development include all except A. Project staff B. Reward and recognition systems C. Performance reports D. Project plan Inputs to Team Development include all except Reward and recognition systems. Question No : 34 In optimal organization structure, the project manager is: A. Functional B. Weak matrix C. Projectized D. Dedicated project team
Dedicated project team Question No : 35 Precedence diagramming method (PDM) uses which of the following dependencies A. Finish-to-start B. Start-to-start C. Finish-to-finish D. Start-to-finish Finish-to-start An activity must finish before the next activity begins. Finish-to-finish An activity must finish before the next activity can finish. Start-to-start An activity must start before the next activity can start. Start-to-finish An activity must start before the next activity can finish. Question No : 36 Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection? A. Contract negotiation B. Weighting system C. Payment system D. Screening system Payment system is not a tool or technique for Source Selection. Other options are. Question No : 37 Which of the following is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning? A. Staffing management plan B. Templates C. Human resource practices D. Organizational theory Staffing management plan is not tools and techniques of Organizational Planning. Other options are true. Question No : 38 Control Costs is concerned with:
A. Managing changes when they occur B. Resource rates C. Chart of accounts D. Organizational policies Control Costs is concerned with Managing changes when they occur Question No : 39 The closing process scope includes: A. Contract closeout B. Final reporting C. Activity List D. Exit interview closing process scope includes Contract closeout. Question No : 40 Collect Requirements is: A. Developing a plan from major stakeholders B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions C. Formalizing acceptance of the project scope D. Planning project milestones Collect Requirements :Process of progressively elaborating and documenting the project work that produces the product of the project Question No : 41 Which of the following is not input to Define Activities : A. Work breakdown structure B. Product description C. Constraints D. Assumptions Define Activities - Inputs : Work breakdown structure, Constraints, Assumptions and
Organizational Process Assets. Question No : 42 When the project team directs staff assignments, what is not considered in the selection of a staff? A. Previous experience B. Staff age C. Availability D. Personal interest Staff age is not considered in the selection of a staff Question No : 43 Which of the following involves estimating the cost of individual work items: A. Computerized B. Bottom up estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Square foot Bottom-up estimating : Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total, more accurate Question No : 44 The most rapid Estimate Costs technique is: A. Square foot estimating B. Template estimating C. Computerized estimating D. Analogous estimating Computerized estimating rapid Estimate Costs technique Question No : 45 Which of the following is another term for top down estimating.? A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling
D. Bottom up estimating Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Question No : 46 In which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan prepared? A. Initiation B. Collect Requirements C. Define Scope D. Verify Scope A Schedule Management Plan is developed as part of "Develop Project Management Plan". Question No : 47 is the most accurate Estimate Costs technique. A. Parametric modelling B. Bottom up estimating C. Analogous estimating D. None Bottom-up estimating : Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total - more accurate Question No : 48 involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modelling D. Bottom up estimating Parametric modeling : Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs (e.g., price per square foot).
Question No : 49 Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of which will adversely affect project objectives. A. Likely events B. Complex activities C. Complex schedules D. Uncertain occurrences Uncertain occurrences can affect project objective. Question No : 50 Which is generally the least accurate. A. Using stakeholders to predict cost B. Parametric modelling C. Analogous estimating D. Computerized estimating Analogous estimating : Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Question No : 51 Contract close out contains: A. Contract documentation B. Procurement audits C. Formal acceptance and closure D. All of the above Contract close out contains Contract documentation,procurement audits and Formal acceptance and closure. Question No : 52 Which is not included in General Management : A. Finance and accounting B. Strategic planning
C. Sales and marketing D. Developing a new product or service Developing a new product or service is not included in General Management. Question No : 53 A program is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A program consists of a related group of projects and Program management is the process of managing multiple on going projects B. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcome C. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcome D. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments A program consists of a related group of projects and Program management is the process of managing multiple on going projects Question No : 54 Which of the following processes is not included in Project Time Management.? A. Define Activities B. Sequence Activities C. Develop Schedule and Control Schedule D. Work breakdown structure (WBS) Work breakdown structure (WBS) is not included in Project Time Management but all other options provided in Project Time Management.3/7/2009 Question No : 55 Which of the following is not included in Performance improvements : A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked B. Improvements in individual skills C. Improvements in team behaviours D. Improvements in team capabilities Improvements in amount of overtime worked is not included in Performance
improvements. Question No : 56 Which of the following describes how cost variances will be managed? A. Cost management plan B. Cost baseline C. Cost estimate D. Chart of accounts Cost management plan describes how cost variances will be managed. Question No : 57 coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan. A. Work Breakdown Structure B. Resource planning C. Resource leveling D. Executing process Executing process coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan. Question No : 58 The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called: A. Procurement planning B. Source selection C. Contract administration D. Contract closeout Procurement planning : Determining what project needs can best be met by procuring products or services outside the organization Question No : 59 The Critical Path Method of scheduling is: A. A mathematical analysis technique for Develop Schedule B. A technique that uses weighted averages to calculate project duration C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule D. A technique that allows for probabilistic treatment of both network logic and activity
duration estimates Critical Path Method (CPM): Calculates a single, deterministic early and late start and finish date for each activity, to be used to determine which activities must be completed on time to avoid impacting the finish date of the project Question No : 60 During part of the Procurement Management process does procurement negotiations happened.? A. Plan Procurements B. Conduct Procurements C. Administer Procurements D. Close Procurements In Conduct Procurements process negotiations occurs. Question No : 61 You are project manager and now in middle of creating RFP(Request for proposal). RFP(Request for proposal) is done in. A. Plan Procurements B. Conduct Procurements C. Administer Procurements D. Close Procurements RFP(Request for proposal) is done in Plan Procurements process, Question No : 62 Create Procurement document is done in. A. Plan Procurements B. Conduct Procurements C. Administer Procurements D. Close Procurements Create Procurement document is done in Plan Procurements process.
Question No : 63 You are project manager and now you are middle of comparing proposals received from sellers. Comparing proposals received from sellers done in. A. Plan Procurements B. Conduct Procurements C. Administer Procurements D. Close Procurements Comparing proposals received from sellers done in Conduct Procurements. Question No : 64 Make payment to seller is done in. A. Plan Procurements B. Conduct Procurements C. Administer Procurements D. Close Procurements Make payment to seller is done in Administer Procurements. Question No : 65 Complete final contract performance reporting and verify the product is done in. A. Plan Procurements B. Conduct Procurements C. Administer Procurements D. Close Procurements Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in Close Procurements. Question No : 66 Which of the following is controlling changes to the budget. A. Control Costs B. Estimate Costs C. Determine Budget D. None
Control Costs is controlling changes to the budget. Question No : 67 Key Management skills include: A. Leading B. Communicating C. Negotiating D. All of the above All options are key management skills. Question No : 68 Which of the following is not output from Control Schedule: A. Schedule updates B. Revisions C. Corrective action D. Lessons learned Outputs of Control Schedule : Schedule updates, Corrective action and Lessons learned Question No : 69 A resource pool description provides: A. The unit cost for each resource B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns C. Performance of the pool resources D. Duration of the project A resource pool description : What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns Question No : 70 Which of the following processes recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization.
A. Initiating process B. Solicitation process C. Scoping process D. Planning process Initiating process :recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization. Question No : 71 Which of the following is an output of Define Scope? A. Accepted deliverables B. Change Requests C. Project document updates. D. Project scope statement Project scope statement is an output of Define Scope. Question No : 72 Risk event is the description of what may happen to the of the project. A. Manager B. harm C. Schedule D. Budget Risk event is the description of what may happen to the harm of the project. Question No : 73 A RAM is: A. Random access memory B. Rapid and movement C. Responsibilities and methods D. Responsibility assignment matrix The Responsibility Assignment Matrix is used to give an overview of personnel responsibility for particular tasks.
Question No : 74 Contingency planning is a means to risks to the project through a formal process and provides the resources to meet the risk events. A. Address B. Classify C. Assign D. Resolve Contingency Planning:The development of a management plan that identifies alternative strategies to be used to ensure project success if specified risk events occur. Question No : 75 Which of the following devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need that the project was undertaken to address. A. Development process B. Scoping process C. Planning process D. Information development process Planning process Question No : 76 Staffing requirements do not define: A. What types of skills are required B. What time frames C. What kinds of individuals or groups D. What type of resource planning is required Staffing requirements do not define What type of resource planning is required. Question No : 77 A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations must be. A. Statistically dependent B. Variance distributed
C. Statistically independent D. Deterministic Statistically independent Question No : 78 Constraints do not include: A. Impacts of weather B. Organizational structure of the performing organization C. Collective bargaining D. Expected staff assignments Impacts of weather Question No : 79 Which of the following is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration: A. Contract change control system B. Contract negotiation C. Payment system D. Performance rating Contract negotiation is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration. Question No : 80 Which of the following documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was undertaken to build. A. Resource plan B. Project charter C. Project description D. Scope statement Project description documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was undertaken to build.
Question No : 81 A is a series of actions bringing about a result. A. Project plan B. Process C. Schedule D. Flowchart Process Question No : 82 Which of the following involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities. A. Resource planning B. Estimate Costs C. Determine Budget D. Control Costs Resource planning :Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships to individuals or groups. Question No : 83 Which of the following is the Estimate Costs technique used most frequently in the early stages of a project. A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling D. Bottom up estimating Analogous estimating : Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Question No : 84 A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:
A. Hierarchal B. Authoritarian C. Charismatic D. Associative No Expl 0 Question No : 85 You are responsible of developing a new product for a bank. Your quality metrics is based on the 80th percentile of each of the last three products developed. This is an example of: A. Statistical sampling B. Metrics C. Benchmarking D. Operational definitions No Expl 1 Question No : 86 The two closing procedures are called: A. Contract close out and Verify Scope B. Contract close out and administrative closure C. Project closure and product verification D. Project closure and lessons learned No Expl 2 Question No : 87 Scoring models, comparative approaches and benefit contribution are all part of: A. Constrained optimization models for selecting a project B. Benefit measurement models for selecting a project C. Quality measurement techniques D. Distribute Information tools No Expl 3
Question No : 88 During the Develop Schedule process the Project Manager may have to go through several iterations of the schedule before establishing the schedule baseline. All of the following are tools and techniques that may be used during this process: A. Critical Path Method, GERT, Resource Requirements B. Resource Levelling Heuristics, Mathematical Analysis, Calendars C. Duration compression, Resource Leveling Heuristics, PERT D. GERT, PERT, Leads and Lags No Expl 4 Question No : 89 Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off period, but seldom resolves the issue in the long term? A. Problem solving B. Withdrawal C. Forcing D. Smoothing No Expl 5 Question No : 90 The "To Complete Performance Index" (TCPI) is calculated by: A. Subtracting the actual costs to date from the estimate at completion B. Dividing the budgeted cost of the remaining work by the difference between the estimate at completion and actual costs to date C. Multiplying the estimate at completion by the cumulative cost performance index D. Adding the estimate at completion to the actual costs to date and multiplying by the cumulative cost performance index No Expl 6 Question No : 91 A complex project will fit best in what type of organization? A. Functional
B. Cross-functional C. Matrix D. Balanced No Expl 7 Question No : 92 Which of the following could be an appropriate WBS code for a work package at the fourth level in a WBS where the top level code is 1.0? A. 1.4 B. 1.1.1.1 C. 1.2.3.4 D. b and c No Expl 8 Question No : 93 Which of the following Project Scope Management processes involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components? A. Collect Requirements B. Initiation C. Scope Change Control D. Define Scope No Expl 9 Question No : 94 The review of key deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is called: A. phase exit B. kill point C. stage gate D. all of the above No Expl 10
Question No : 95 Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions? A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end, and drop rapidly as the project nears completion. B. The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project. C. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project. D. All of the above No Expl 11 Question No : 96 Project scope is: A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions. B. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service. C. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract. D. All of the above No Expl 12 Question No : 97 What is the purpose of the WBS? A. To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units. B. To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework. C. To show the organizational structure of a program. D. all of the above No Expl 13 Question No : 98 The unique identifiers assigned to each item of a WBS are often known collectively as:
A. The work package codes B. The project identifiers C. The code of accounts D. The element accounts No Expl 14 Question No : 99 Change requests can occur due to: A. An external event such as a change in government regulation. B. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product. C. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project. D. all of the above No Expl 15 Question No : 102 Which of the following are outputs of the Scope Change Control Process? A. Scope changes B. Corrective action C. Lessons learned D. All of the above No Expl 18 Question No : 103 Who should contribute to the development of the project plan? A. Project manager B. Entire project team including project manager C. Senior management D. Just the planning department No Expl 19
Question No : 105 Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in the Define Scope Process? A. Benefit/cost analysis B. Decomposition C. Inspection D. b and d No Expl 21 Question No : 106 Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report? A. Gantt chart B. Milestone chart C. fishbone diagram D. network diagram No Expl 22 Question No : 107 Which of the following is the primary purpose of a milestone chart? A. To show task dependencies. B. To show resource constraints. C. To show significant events in the project such as completion of key deliverables. D. To highlight the critical path. No Expl 23 Question No : 108 When should the project manager be assigned? A. As early in the project as feasible. B. Preferably before much project planning has been done. C. At least prior to the start of project plan execution. D. All of the above.
No Expl 24 Question No : 109 In which type of organization(s) is the project manager's role most likely part-time? A. Functional B. Balanced Matrix C. Weak Matrix D. Functional and Weak Matrix No Expl 25 Question No : 110 A document which describes how project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the project is: (choose the best answer) A. A project plan B. A risk analysis C. A scope management plan D. A scope statement No Expl 26 Question No : 112 During what Time Management Process are the specific activities that must be performed to produce the deliverables in the WBS identified and documented? A. Sequence Activities B. Define Activities C. Develop Schedule D. Estimate Activity Durations No Expl 28 Question No : 113 A period of time in work weeks which includes non-working days is called: A. Elapsed Time B. Duration C. Effort
D. Earned Time No Expl 29 Question No : 114 The amount of time that an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the project end date is called: A. Negative Float B. Total Float C. Float D. c and b No Expl 30 Question No : 115 What are you likely to see as a project progresses in a schedule with must fix dates and little or no slack? A. Lots of free float B. Idle resources C. Negative float D. Positive float No Expl 31 Question No : 116 Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the PERT weighted average? A. 6 B. 4 C. 6.3 D. 6.1 No Expl 32 Question No : 117
What is the standard deviation for the estimates in the above problem? A. 0.6 B. 2 C. 1.5 D. 0.5 No Expl 33 Question No : 118 In crashing the schedule, you would focus on: A. Accelerating as many tasks as possible B. Accelerating just the non-critical tasks C. Accelerating the performance of tasks on the critical path D. None of the above No Expl 34 Question No : 119 To calculate the late start and late finish dates for a set of tasks, you must do : A. An analysis of the critical path B. A forwards pass C. A backwards pass D. All of the above No Expl 35 Question No : 120 An activity that consumes no time or resources and shows only that a dependency exists between two activities is called: A. A milestone B. A hammock C. A dummy activity D. All of the above
No Expl 36 Question No : 121 A modification of a logical relationship that allows an acceleration of the successor task is represented by: A. Lead time B. Lag time C. Negative Lag D. Lead time or Negative Lag No Expl 37 Question No : 122 Assuming a PERT weighted average computation, what is the probability of completing the project within plus-or-minus 3 standard deviations of the mean? A. 68% B. 99.74% C. 95% D. 75% No Expl 38 Question No : 123 Activity Resource Requirements is an input to : A. Estimate Activity Durations B. Control Schedule C. Sequence Activities D. Estimate Activity Resources Activity Resource Requirements is an input to Estimate Activity Durations. Question No : 124 Dummy relationships or dummy activities can be used in which Sequence Activities techniques? A. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] B. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
C. Fragment Network D. All of the above Dummy activities are used to show complete relationships between tasks, and the fact that ADM uses only finish-to-start dependences. Question No : 125 Which of the following relationships is used in Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] : A. Start-to-Finish B. Finish-to-Start C. Start-to-Start D. Finish-to-Finish Dummy activities are used to show complete relationships between tasks, and the fact that ADM uses only finish-to-start dependences. Question No : 126 Which of the following is NOT a technique for Sequence Activities? A. Rolling Wave Planning B. Mandatory Dependencies C. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM D. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM] Rolling wave planning is a technique for Define Activities. Other options are technique for Sequence Activities. Question No : 127 Which of the following is a technique used to Define Activities? A. Rolling Wave Planning B. Mandatory Dependencies C. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM D. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM] Rolling wave planning is a technique for Define Activities. Other options are technique
for Sequence Activities. Question No : 128 Reserve Analysis is a technique for: A. Estimate Activity Durations B. Estimate Activity Resources C. Sequence Activities D. Define Activities Reserve Analysis ( Contingency ): Project teams may choose to incorporate an additional time frame, called time reserve, contingency or buffer, that can be added to the activity duration or elsewhere in the schedule as recognition of schedule risk. Question No : 129 Resource Leveling is a technique for: A. Develop Schedule B. Estimate Activity Durations C. Estimate Activity Resources D. Sequence Activities Resource Levelling Heuristics: Allocate scare resources to critical path activities first etc. Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule are : Mathematical analysis, Duration compression, Simulation,Resource-leveling,Project management software, Adjusting Leads and Lags and Coding structure. Question No : 130 Adjusting Leads and Lags is a technique for: A. Develop Schedule B. Estimate Activity Durations C. Estimate Activity Resources D. Sequence Activities Adjusting Leads and Lags: Since the improper use of leads or lags can distort the project schedule, the leads or lags are adjusted during schedule network analysis to develop a viable project schedule. Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule are : Mathematical analysis,duration compression,simulation,resource-leveling,project management software,adjusting Leads and Lags and Coding structure.
Question No : 131 Parametric Estimating is done as a part of which process: A. Develop Schedule B. Estimate Activity Durations C. Sequence Activities D. Estimate Activity Resources Tools and Techniques for Estimate Activity Durations are : Analogous estimates, Parametric Estimating, Three-Point Estimates and Reserve Analysis. Question No : 132 Three-Point Estimates includes. A. Most likely B. Optimistic C. Pessimistic D. All of the above Three-Point Estimates includes Most likely, Optimistic and Pessimistic. Question No : 133 Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which process: A. Sequence Activities B. Develop Schedule C. Define Activities D. Estimate Activity Durations Sequence Activities : Identifying and documenting interactivity logical relationships Question No : 134 A Project with a total funding of $70,000 finished with a BAC value of $60,000. What term can best describe the difference of $10,000? A. Cost Variance B. Management Overhead C. Management Contingency Reserve D. Schedule Variance
The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is Management Contingency Reserve. BAC represents the revised Cost baseline for the project. So C is true. Question No : 135 Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of: A. Estimate Costs process B. Determine Budget process C. Control Costs process D. None Cost management plan : Describes how cost variances will be managed and Part of the overall project plan. Output of Estimate Costs process is : Cost estimates and Cost management plan Question No : 136 Which of the following is NOT a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget? A. Management Contingency Reserve B. Management Overheads C. Project Management Planing D. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is Management Contingency Reserve. Management Contingency Reserve is not part of project cost baseline. Question No : 137 Which of the following is NOT part of the Earned Value calculations? A. Unknown Unknowns B. Project Budget C. Known Unknowns D. Amount of work completed
Unknown Unknowns is not part of the Earned Value calculations. Question No : 138 Resource reallocation from non critical to critical activities is an example of Project Scheduling technique: A. Resource Leveling B. Schedule Compression C. Critical Path Method D. What if Analysis Resource Leveling :Allocate scare resources to critical path activities first. Question No : 139 Trend Analysis is best described as: A. Examining project performance over time B. Calculating Earned Value C. Calculating Cost Variance D. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time Trend Analysis is Examining project performance time by time Question No : 140 Which of the following is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure? A. Project task B. Work package C. SOW D. RBS A work package is the lowest level of a work breakdown structure. Question No : 141 Knowledge of best practices in a particular area is most likely to give rise to which of the following dependencies: A. Finish-to-Start dependency B. External dependency C. Mandatory dependency
D. Soft Logic This kind of dependency is also known as Soft Logic, Preferential Logic, or Preferred Logic Question No : 142 Reserve Analysis involves: A. Estimating by multiplying the quantity of work by productivity rate B. Adding resource reserves to the activity resource estimates C. Developing project schedule with contingency reserves as a recognition of the schedule risk D. Incorporating time buffers into the activity duration estimates Reserve Analysis ( Contingency ): Project teams may choose to incorporate an additional time frame, called time reserve, contingency or buffer, that can be added to the activity duration or elsewhere in the schedule as recognition of schedule risk. Question No : 143 Reserve Analysis technique NOT used during. A. Control Costs B. Estimating Activity Duration C. Determine Budget D. Estimate Costs Reserve analysis is used during Estimate Costs to calculate contingency buffers that apply to individual or group of activities. Reserve analysis is used during Determine Budget to calculate management contingency buffers that apply to the entire project. Reserve analysis is done during Activity Duration estimation in order to calculate duration buffers for individual or group of activities. Question No : 144 Which of the following is NOT true about Resource Leveling: A. Project's Critical path may be altered B. Reverse resource allocation scheduling C. Resource based scheduling method D. All of the above
All are true about Resource Levelling. Resource Levelling is another tool in Develop Schedule. Resource Levelling removes the peaks and valleys of resource allocation. This technique also examines resource over allocation and critical resource allocation. This technique lets the schedule and cost slip. Question No : 145 If you are project manager, After a change request has been denied, you should: A. Record it and save it. B. Pass on to the project team. C. Forget it D. All of the above You have to keep track of all change requests. Question No : 146 Change requests are made against the? A. Project baseline B. SOW C. Charter D. Executive summary All change requests are made against a project plan that has the project baseline. Question No : 147 Change requests should be? A. Formal B. Interesting C. Short D. None Record of changes request should be maintained. Question No : 148 The Change Control Board should be?
A. flexible B. Include the project manager C. appropriate authority D. All of the above CCB should have all the mentioned characteristics. Question No : 149 The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions included in the? A. Execution Plan B. Project Scope C. Product scope D. Statement of work. Product scope - The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service. Project scope - The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions. Question No : 150 The outcome that must be produced to complete a part of a project or the project itself is called a? A. Deliverable B. Work Statement C. Project Plan D. WBS The outcome that must be produced to complete a part of a project or the project itself is called a Deliverable. Question No : 151 Which of the following is a valid response to positive risks? A. Exploit B. Share C. Enhance D. All of the above
Risk mitigation is a response to negative risks and not positive risks. Positive risks may be responded by - "Exploit", "Enhance", "Share", "Accept". Question No : 152 Which of the following is a valid response to negative risks? A. Exploit B. Share C. Enhance D. mitigation Risk mitigation is a response to negative risks and not positive risks. Positive risks may be responded by - "Exploit", "Enhance", "Share", "Accept". Question No : 153 Which of the following processes has risk register as the primary output? A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Monitor and Control Risks C. Plan Risk Management D. Identify Risks Process of Identify Risks has Risk register as the major output. Question No : 154 During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability and impact? A. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis B. Monitor and Control Risks C. Plan Risk Management D. Identify Risks Risk probability and impact are defined during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. Question No : 155 Which of the following compression techniques increases risk?
A. Crashing B. Resource leveling C. Fast tracking D. Lead and lag Fast tracking is a compression technique that increases risk and potentially causes rework Question No : 156 Which of the following performance measurements tells us how much more of the budget is required to finish the project? A. ETC B. EV C. EAC D. AC Estimate to completion calculates how much more of the budget is needed to complete the project if everything continues at the current level of performance. Question No : 157 Project risk is characterized by three factors. What are they? A. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impact B. Identification, type of risk category and probability of impact C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake D. Occurrence, frequency and cost Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake are the factors. Question No : 158 A project is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan B. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcome C. A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product or service D. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
Question No : 159 Which of the following is best for handling cross functional project needs for a large, complex project? A. A strong matrix organization B. A project coordinator C. A project expeditor D. Direct executive involvement Strong Matrix: Power rest with Project Manager. Question No : 160 Project Stakeholders are defined as: A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completion C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources D. All of the above All of the above Question No : 161 The tools and techniques used in the initiation process are: A. Product analysis B. Project Develop Schedule C. Expert judgment D. Project budget Expert judgment is required in the initiation process Question No : 162 Likely schedule durations for Estimate Activity Durations are available from historical information that is derived from the following sources except: A. Commercial duration databases B. Project files C. Project team knowledge
D. Outside consultants All are inputs to Estimate Activity Durations except Outside consultants. Question No : 163 Your spouse works for a vendor and the vendor bidding on a project at your company. You are not affiliated with the specific project team evaluating bids, but you are part of the executive project management team. What should you do? A. Inform your company of the relationship B. Inform the vendor of the relationship C. Inform your company and vendor about the relationship D. Does not inform the vendor It is your responsibility to disclose to both the vendor and your company. Question No : 164 Which of the following process involves measures project and product scope performance and managing scope baseline changes? A. Collect Requirements B. Define Scope C. Verify scope. D. Control scope Control scope process involves measures project and product scope performance and managing scope baseline changes. Question No : 165 Which of the following is NOT one of the triple constraint of a project? A. Scope B. Time C. Cost D. Resources Projects triple constraints are 1) Scope, 2)Time and 3)Cost
Question No : 167 Which of the following organization is same as Functional organization? A. Projectized organization B. Balanced Matrix organization C. Strong Matrix D. Weak Matrix organization Weak Matrix : Power reset with Functional Manager and Functional organization : Project Manager has least power and all management is taken care by functional manager like marketing engineer, sales engineer etc. Question No : 168 A Schedule Management Plan is developed in which of the following knowledge areas: A. Develop Project Management Plan B. Project Cost Management C. Project Scope Management D. Project Time Management A Schedule Management Plan is developed as part of "Develop Project Management Plan". Question No : 169 Define Activities is typically performed by which of the following: A. Project Manager who created the WBS B. Management C. Project Team Members responsible for the work package D. Project Stakeholder Define Activities is typically performed by Project Team Members. identify the activities that need to be done to complete the project. Question No : 170 Which of the following is not an activity attribute: A. Time when to perform the activity B. Location where to perform the activity
C. Leads and Lags D. Person responsible for the activity Activity attributes are an input for project Develop Schedule. The scheduling information is not a part of the activity attribute. Question No : 171 Which of the following does not create changes to the Project Scope Statement or Work Breakdown Structure? A. Estimate Activity Durations B. Define Activities C. Estimate Activity Resources D. Sequence Activities Estimate Activity Durations : Process of taking information on project scope and resources and then developing durations for input to schedules. Question No : 173 At which stage, project cost is maximum? A. Initial stage B. Closing stage C. Middle stage D. None of the above Middle stage : Execution stage has the resources and cost usage is maximum. Question No : 174 Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project? A. The cost associated at the initial phase of the project is highest. B. Stake holders have maximum influence during this phase C. The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project. D. All of the above minimum cost at the project initiation stage because minimum requirement of resources.