Biotech CTE Practice Take Home Version A True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Antibiotics can be used to treat a viral infection. Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2. Which type of bond helps form the secondary and tertiary structures of proteins and holds the two strands of the DNA molecule together? a. ionic d. covalent b. hydrogen e. polar covalent c. disulfide 3. Which term describes a molecule that is water hating? a. hydrophobic c. nonpolar b. polar d. hydrophylic 4. For this DNA strand: 5 GCTACCTGACTCCGAG 3 which of these is the correct complimentary strand? a. CGAUGGACUGAGGCUC b. CGATGGACTGAGGCTC c. CGUTGGUCTGUGGCTC d. CGATGCACTGAGGCTC 5. What is the shape of a bacteria with the name Streptococcus? a. Rods in chains. b. Rods in clumps or clusters. c. Rods in sets of 4. d. Spheres in chains. e. Spheres in clumps or clusters. f. Spheres in sets of 4. 6. There are three types of RNA, each type is involved in the synthesis of proteins. The first type is the template for translation into a protein, the second type is part of the ribosome and the third type brings amino acids to the ribosome. Which of these lists that three types of RNA in the same order as they were described above? a. mrna, trna, rrna d. mrna, rrna, trna b. mrna, trna, rrna e. trna, rrna, mrna c. rrna, mrna, trna 7. In the process of Gram Staining, what is the name of the substance in the bacterial cell wall that accepts the stain? a. Proteins (all kinds) d. Safranin b. Lipds or fats e. Glucose c. Peptidoglycan f. Crystal Violet 8. The structure shown in the diagram below is an example of.
a. DNA c. Protein b. RNA d. Plasmid 9. Which carbon atom is the arrow in the diagram of a nucleotide below pointing at? a. the 1 (1 prime) carbon. b. the 2 (2 prime) carbon. c. the 3 (3 prime) carbon. d. the 4 (4 prime) carbon. e. the 5 (5 prime) carbon. 10. Which molecule of DNA would be the most stable (the two strands are least likely to separate) at high temperatures. a. CATCAATTCG GTAGTTAAGC b. AATCAATTAG TTAGTTAATC c. ATATATATAT TATATATATA d. GCGCGCGCGC CGCGCGCGCG
11. If you have piece of DNA that is made of 150 base pairs, and you determine that 90 of the total bases are Guanine, how many of the bases should be Adenine? a. 30 c. 60 b. 45 d. 90 12. The diagram below represents a concept known as the central dogma of DNA. What is the name of the process where the cell makes a protein based on the instructions carried in the mrna? a. Replication b. Transcription c. Translation 13. What is the name of the signaling region within the DNA sequence at the beginning of a gene that tells the RNA polymerase where to start transcribing? a. Operator c. Operon b. Promoter d. Start Codon 14. Regions of DNA that are transcribed into mrna and then translated into proteins are called. a. anticodons c. genes b. codons d. promoter 15. In eukaryotes, mrna is processed before it goes to the cytoplasm to be used in protein synthesis. What is the name of the pieces of mrna that are joined together to make the final mrna product that is used to make a protein?
a. Introns d. Operators b. Operons e. Exons c. Promoters 16. Each of the agarose gels below was run for 30 minutes at 200 volts, and has been loaded with the same 3 DNA samples. Which of the gels below is made with the highest percentage of agarose. Hint: Higer percentage of agarose means that the gel is thicker and harder to move through. a. Gel #1 c. Gel #3 b. Gel #2 d. All of these have the same %.
17. What is the charge on a molecule of DNA? a. Neutral b. Positive c. Negative 18. In the process of PCR, what are the dntps (deoxynucleotide triphosphates) used for? a. to provide a primer for DNA polymerase to start synthesis. b. to provide the individual bases (A, T, C, G). c. to prevent the ph of the reaction from changing. d. to read the DNA template and synthesize new DNA. e. to provide the DNA template. 19. Shown below is a chromatography column. In this experiment, there are two proteins be separated. One is found in region X at the same time that the other protein is found in region Y. Which answer best describes the protein that would be found in the area labeled Y when compared to a protein that would be found in the region labeled X. a. X is a positive protein while Y is a negative protein. b. X is a negative protein while Y is a positive protein. c. X is a large protein while Y is a small protein. d. X is a small protein while Y is a large protein. 20. In the primary structure of a protein, the amino acids are joined together by what type of bond? a. Disulfide bond c. Peptide bond b. Hydrogen bond d. Ionic bond 21. Which point in the diagram represents a beta pleated sheet secondary structure?
a. Point A c. Point C b. Point B d. Point D 22. A piece of mrna has 663 nucleotides in it (measured from the start codon to the stop codon). How many amino acids would be in the polypeptide chain that is translated from it? a. 221 d. 660 b. 220 e. 663 c. 331 f. 330 23. Given the following chemical formula, H 2 PO 4, what is the molecular weight (also called the molar mass) of 3 moles of the compound? a. 2.016 g d. 96.99 g b. 63.99 g e. 64.00 g c. 94.97 g f. 97.00 g 24. What unit would you use when you calculate the molar mass of the chemical H 2 PO 4? a. mol/l c. g/mol b. mol/g d. L/mol 25. The molar mass of Na 2 CO 3 is 106. How many grams of Na 2 CO 3 would you need to make a 2M solution of this substance? a. 106 g c. 53 g b. 212 g d. 100.6 g 26. You would like to make 125 ml of a 0.5 M CaCl 2 solution. How many grams of CaCl 2 do you need to make the solution, given that you know the molar mass of CaCl 2 is 147? a. 9 g c. 10 g b. 9.21 g d. 9.19 g
27. You want to make 200 ml of a 2% agarose solution. How many grams of agarose powder do you need to make this solution? a. 2 g d..02 g b. 4 g e..04 g c. 3 g f..03 g 28. You need to make 500 ml of a 1 M HCl solution. How many ml of a 11.6 M HCl solution will you need in order to dilute it to 1 M? a. 44 ml c. 45 ml b. 40 ml d. 43.1 ml 29. Which of the following chemicals neutralizes the negative charge on the bacterial cell membrane and on the DNA during transformation? a. Arabinose c. (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 b. MgCl 2 d. CaCl 2 30. What is the name for the small circular piece of DNa that is normally found in some (but not all) bacteria, which carries extra genes that give the bacteria new traits? a. Chromosome c. Plasmid b. Polypeptide d. Operon 31. A genetically engineered plasmid usually carries what type of gene which allows the bacteria to survive in the presence of a certain substance made by fungi and other bacteria? a. A restriction enzyme gene. b. An antibiotic resistance gene. c. An arabinose utilization gene. d. A green fluorecent protein gene. 32. Which method of transferring DNA into bacteria involves transferring DNA from one bacteria to another through a pilus? a. Conjugation c. Transformation b. Transduction d. Conduction 33. Which method of transferring DNA into bacteria involves transferring DNA from one bacteria to another by utilizing a virus? a. Conjugation c. Transformation b. Transduction d. Conduction 34. Which method of transferring DNA into bacteria involves the bacteria taking up pieces of DNA that are floating around in the environment? a. Conjugation c. Transformation b. Transduction d. Conduction 35. Which of the following choices best describes the activities completed during the pglo transformation of bacteria lab, in the order that they were completed in the lab? a. Recovery > Preincubation > Incubation > Heat Shock b. Preincubation > Incubation > Heat Shock > Recovery c. Preincubation > Heat Shock > Recovery > Incubation d. Preincubation > Heat Shock > Incubation > Recovery
36. In the plasmid shown below, the transcription of the GFP gene is regulated by a series of genes named araa, arab & arad. There is also a protein named arac that controls the transcription of araa, B and D. This series of genes and the protein are called the pglo. Its job is to turn transcription and proteins synthesis of the GFP gene on and off. a. transcriptase enzyme c. green fluorescent protein b. operon d. reverse transcriptase promoter 37. What is the name of the specific sequence of DNA that is cut by a restriction enzyme? a. palindrome c. restriction sequence b. start codon d. TATA box 38. Which of the following do bacteria produce naturally as a defense agains foreign DNA that is injected into the bacteria by a virus? a. Antibiotics d. DNA polymerase b. Restriction enzymes e. Lysozymes c. Ligase 39. What is the function of the enzyme DNA Ligase? a. It binds to a promoter and transcribes DNA into RNA. b. It cuts DNA at a specific sequence. c. It makes a copy of DNA during replication. d. It translates mrna into a protein. e. It repairs breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA. 40. Which one of the sequences below is NOT a palindrome. a. GAATTC c. GCCGGC CTTAAG CGGCCG b. ATTTAT d. GATATC TAAATA CTATAG 41. The restriction enzyme BacI is named after the organism that it is found in. What organism did it come from? a. Bacillus cultilus c. Bacillus lichenformus b. Bacillus acrodophilus d. Streptococci baculogaster 42. Which one of the following is not used in the process of creating a recombinant DNA molecule? a. bacteria d. DNA polymerase b. DNA ligase e. Antibiotic resistance gene c. Restriction enzymes
43. Shown here is a drawing of an agarose gel. A BamHI digest of the circular piece of DNA called pbla was loaded into the first well and run through the gel. Based on the fragment sizes shown, what is the total size of the pbla plasmid? a. 3700 bp c. 6000 bp b. 5700 bp d. 8700 bp 44. How many times did the restriction enzyme BamHI cut this plasmid? a. 2 times c. 4 times b. 3 times d. 1 time 45. Shown below is a diagram of a hydrophobic interaction chromatography column. Yuo have added a complex mixture of bacterial proteins into the top of the column. One protein is bound to the top of the column and the rest are not interacting with the column at all (these proteins are flowing through the column). The protein at the top of the column is binding to the material in the column because it is:
a. Positively charged d. Negatively charged. b. Hydrophylic e. Hydrophobic c. The largest protein 46. You want to insert the arac gene from the pglo plasmid into the pkan plasmid. Which enzymes would you use to cut both the pglo and pkan plasmids with so that you can ligate the gene into the new plasmid without causing the pkan plasmid to function incorrectly? a. BamHI c. HindIII b. NdeI d. EcoRI 47. Shown below is a drawing of an agarose gel. A DNA sample was digested and the fragment sizes that were created by the digestion reaction seen in the lane labeled (-) Ligase. Which of the four (+) Ligase samples correctly shows the size of the DNA molecule that would be created if ligase were added to the (-) lane reaction to bind all of the fragments back together?
a. Ligase (+) 1 c. Ligase (+) 3 b. Ligase (+) 2 d. Ligase (+) 4 48. You have transformed a sample of bacteria with the plasmid pictured below, and have colonies of these bacgteria growing on an agar plate. Now you want to grow a large culture of this transformed bacteria in a liquid media. From the list below, choose the type of liquid media you would use to grow the bacteria and have the bacteria express the GFP gene. a. LB + ampicillin d. LB + ampicillin + arabinose b. LB + arabinose e. LB + ampicillin + glucose c. LB + kanomycin 49. Below is a diagram of a gel that was created by running electrophoresis on the DNA from three different samples of bacteria that were transformed with pamp or pkan. Which clone sample represents the DNA from a sample that was transformed with both plasmids?
a. pamp d. Clone 2 b. pkan e. Clone 3 c. Clone 1 50. In designing a probe to search for this gene scientists designed a complementary nucleic acid strand to part of the gene sequence. Complete the table to show the mrna sequence complementary to the DNA sequence of interest. DNA sequence: mrna sequence: GATTCGGCCT a. CTTAGCCGGA c. CUAAGCCGGA b. CTAAGCCGGA d. CUUAGCCGGA 51. Three different species of bacteria were exposed to antibiotic discs. The antibiotics tested were P, Q, R and S and the results obtained after incubation at 30 C for 24 hours are shown here. What is the only conclusion that can be drawn from these results? 52. a. Antibiotic P is ineffective against all bacteria. b. Antibiotic R is effective against all bacteria. c. Bacterium Y is most susceptible to antibiotics. d. Antibiotic S is effective against some bacteria.
a. 9 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12 e. 13 Multiple Response Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question. 53. Which of the following processes can a virus do without the help of a host cell? (?) a. DNA Replication. d. Protein synthesis. b. Reproduction (of itself). e. There are no correct choices provided. c. Transcription. 54. Which of the following things are found only in a eukaryotic cell (NOT in a prokaryotic cell)? (2) a. Ribosomes e. Golgi Body b. DNA f. RNA c. Proteins g. Cell Wall d. Nucleus 55. Hydrogen bonds hold the base paris together in the DNA molecule. Which of the following statements correctly describes the hydrogen bonding between DNA and RNA base pairs? (3) a. A : T are held together with 2 hydrogen bonds. b. C : G are held together with 2 hydrogen bonds. c. A : U are held together with 2 hydrogen bonds. d. A : T are held together with 3 hydrogen bonds. e. C : G are held together with 3 hydrogen bonds. f. A : U are held together with 3 hydrogen bonds. 56. Gram Negative bacteria stain (1) while Gram Positive bacteria stain (2). Pick one color from the first column for blank (1) and one color from the second column for blank (2). (1) (2) a. Red/Pink e. Red/Pink b. Blue/Green f. Blue/Green c. Blue/Purple g. Blue/Purple d. Purple h. Purple 57. Antibiotics kill bacteria by inhibiting which of the following processes? (3) a. Protein Synthesis e. Osmosis b. Cell Wall formation f. Mitosis c. DNA Replication g. Cellular Respiration d. Diffusion h. Photosynthesis 58. Choose one answer from the first column to fill in the first blank, and one answer from the the second column to fill in the second blank:
During replication and transcription, DNA and RNA Polymerase read the template strand the (1) direction, and they synthesize the new strand in the (2) direction. (1) (2) a. 3 to 5 c. 3 to 5 b. 5 to 3 d. 5 to 3 59. What are the main structural difference between DNA and RNA? a. Type of sugar d. Number of backbones b. U vs. T e. Shape c. 3 types f. Number of bonds between bases 60. Once introduced into the bacteria, which of these circular DNA molecules will be replicated inside the bacteria? (4) a. e. b. f. c. g. d. h.
61. Bacteria that contain the plasmid below will be able to grow on which of the following types of agar? a. LB agar b. LB agar + Ampicillin c. LB agar + Kanamycin d. LB agar + Ampicillin + Kanamycin e. LB agar + Ornimaxin f. LB agar + Ornimaxin + Ampicillin g. LB agar + Ornimaxin + Kanamycin h. LB agar + Ornimaxin + Kanamycin + Ampicillin 62. You have 2 different circular pieces of DNA that are approximately equal in size, that are named pug6 and pag25. The only way to tell them apart is to do a restriction digest and run the fragments in gel electrophoresis. Based on the plasmid maps below, choose some enzymes to digest these two plasmids with that would allow you to differentiate them from one another. (5) a. HindIII e. NsiI b. BamHI f. SacI
c. XbaI g. KpnI d. XhoI h. SphI 63. Part of the gene sequence of the -galactosidase enzyme is shown here:.gacccgggattcggcct.ctgggccctaagccgga If scientists wanted to splice extra information into this gene which of the following restriction enzymes would be used? a. c. b. d. Matching The following diagram shows the process of DNA replication. You will need to refer to this diagram to answer the question below: a. DNA Polymerase III c. RNA Primase b. Helicase d. Ligase 64. Which enzyme, located at #1, is the enzyme that unzips or separates the two DNA backbones during replication? 65. Which enzyme, located at #2, synthesizes the new DNA in short segments on the lagging strant, and as one continuous strand on the leading strand? 66. Which enzyme, located at #3, is responsible for adding short RNA primers to start DNA replication.
67. Which enzyme, located at #4, binds together the backbones of adjacent DNA segments to complete the DNA. Use the diagram to answer the question below. a. Codon e. mrna b. Anticodon f. trna c. Ribosome g. Polyaminoacid Chain d. Polypeptide Chain 68. Arrow 1 is pointing at which of the following? 69. Arrow 2 is pointing at which of the following? 70. Arrow 3 is pointing at which of the following? 71. Arrow 4 is pointing at which of the following? 72. Arrow 5 is pointing at which of the following? Refer to the diagram below to answer the question.
a. Locus #1 e. 30 base pairs b. Locus #2 f. 34 base pairs c. Locus #3 g. 36 base pairs d. Locus #4 h. 41 base pairs 73. During PCR, Primer #1 would bind to which locus? 74. During PCR, Primer #2 would bind to which locus? 75. Considering where the forward and reverse primers would bond to the template DNA, how long would the target sequence of DNA be? Convert the following number from one metric unit to the other. a. 1,000,000 g..066 b. 6.6 h. 5.55 c. 25 i. 5,550 d. 0.0025 j. 0.66 e..25 k. 2.5 f. 100,000 l. 55.5 76. 1000 L = ml 77. 250 ml = L 78. 66 mg = g 79. 555 mg = cg 80. 0.25 m = dkm 81. 94 C 82. 72 C 83. 59 C During PCR, we used three different temperature settings. Which step in PCR would have taken place at the temperature listed? a. Denaturing b. Annealing c. Extention
For each of the following DNA marker fragment sizes, you measured the distance that each one migrated from the wells on the gel in millimeters. The number of base pairs in each fragments is already known. With this information, you created a standard curve on the semi-log graph paper. Using the information below, answer the question below. a. About 100 bp e. About 2000 bp b. About 500 bp f. About 6000 bp c. About 400 bp g. About 4000 bp d. About 1000 bp h. About 250 bp 84. Using the graph, estimate the size of a fragment that moved 28 mm on the gel. 85. Using the graph, estimate the size of a fragment that moved 1 mm on the gel. 86. Using the graph, estimate the size of a fragment that moved 20 mm on the gel. 87. Using the graph, estimate the size of a fragment that moved 30 mm on the gel. 88. Using the graph, estimate the size of a fragment that moved 35 mm on the gel. Use the diagram of the restriction map of the piece of DNA below to answer the questions: a. 1 d. 4
b. 2 e. 5 c. 3 89. How many fragments will be produced when the linear DNA above is cut with EcoRI? 90. How many fragments will be produced when the linear DNA above is cut with AatII? 91. How many fragments will be produced when the linear DNA above is cut with NotI? Answer the questions below about the measurement range of each micropipette, based on your experience in lab. a..5-10 µl e. 20-100 µl b. 2-20 µl f. 20-200 µl c. 10-100 µl g. 100-1000 µl d. 50-100 µl h. 500-1000 µl 92. A P-200 micropipet is used to measure which range of volumes? 93. A P-10 micropipet is used to measure which range of volumes? 94. A P-20 micropipet is used to measure which range of volumes? 95. A P-100 micropipet is used to measure which range of volumes? 96. A P-1000 micropipet is used to measure which range of volumes? Use the information to calculate the following: a. 306 g d. 759.76 g b. 39.99 g e. 619.84 g c. 58.44 g f. 20 g 97. Calculate the mass (g) of 17 moles of HCl. 98. Calculate the molecular weight (or molar mass) of NaOH. 99. Calculate the mass of 13 moles of NaCl. Match the formulas with their correct name. a. e. b. f.
c. g. d. 100. Dilutions formula. 101. Proportions formula (used to make agar too). 102. Molarity formula. 103. Percent concentration formula. 104. Liters formula. 105. Grams of solute formula. 106. Moles formula. Match the function of each type of RNA with its correct name. a. mrna c. trna b. rrna 107. This is the RNA that carries the direct copy of the code from DNA to make a protein. 108. The ribosome is composed of this type of RNA. 109. This RNA is responsible for carrying the amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain. Short Answer 110. For the micropipette shown below, write out the volume indicated in the window (on the dials). 111. For the micropipette shown below, write out the volume indicated in the window (on the dials).
112. Name the dye commonly used as the counterstain in the Gram staining process. 113. For the micropipette shown below, write out the volume indicated in the window (on the dials).
Biotech CTE Practice Take Home Answer Section TRUE/FALSE 1. ANS: F PTS: 1 MULTIPLE CHOICE 2. ANS: B PTS: 1 3. ANS: A PTS: 1 4. ANS: B PTS: 1 5. ANS: D PTS: 1 6. ANS: D PTS: 1 7. ANS: C PTS: 1 8. ANS: B PTS: 1 9. ANS: C PTS: 1 10. ANS: D PTS: 1 11. ANS: C PTS: 1 12. ANS: C PTS: 1 13. ANS: B PTS: 1 14. ANS: C PTS: 1 15. ANS: E PTS: 1 16. ANS: C PTS: 1 17. ANS: C PTS: 1 18. ANS: B PTS: 1 19. ANS: D PTS: 1 20. ANS: C PTS: 1 21. ANS: C PTS: 1 22. ANS: A PTS: 1 23. ANS: D PTS: 1 24. ANS: C PTS: 1 25. ANS: B PTS: 1 26. ANS: D PTS: 1 27. ANS: B PTS: 1 28. ANS: D PTS: 1 29. ANS: D PTS: 1 30. ANS: C PTS: 1 31. ANS: B PTS: 1 32. ANS: A PTS: 1 33. ANS: B PTS: 1 34. ANS: C PTS: 1 35. ANS: D PTS: 1 36. ANS: B PTS: 1 37. ANS: C PTS: 1 38. ANS: B PTS: 1
39. ANS: E PTS: 1 40. ANS: B PTS: 1 41. ANS: B PTS: 1 42. ANS: D PTS: 1 43. ANS: C PTS: 1 44. ANS: B PTS: 1 45. ANS: E PTS: 1 46. ANS: B PTS: 1 47. ANS: C PTS: 1 48. ANS: D PTS: 1 49. ANS: D PTS: 1 50. ANS: C PTS: 1 51. ANS: A PTS: 1 52. ANS: C PTS: 1 MULTIPLE RESPONSE 53. ANS: E PTS: 1 54. ANS: D, E PTS: 1 55. ANS: A, C, E PTS: 1 56. ANS: A, H PTS: 1 57. ANS: A, B, C PTS: 1 58. ANS: B, C PTS: 1 59. ANS: A, B, D, E PTS: 1 60. ANS: A, B, F, H PTS: 1 61. ANS: A, B, C, D PTS: 1 62. ANS: B, D, E, G, H PTS: 1 63. ANS: A, C PTS: 1 64. ANS: B PTS: 1 65. ANS: A PTS: 1 66. ANS: C PTS: 1 67. ANS: D PTS: 1 68. ANS: E PTS: 1 69. ANS: A PTS: 1 70. ANS: F PTS: 1 71. ANS: D PTS: 1 72. ANS: C PTS: 1 73. ANS: A PTS: 1 74. ANS: D PTS: 1 75. ANS: G PTS: 1 76. ANS: A PTS: 1 77. ANS: E PTS: 1 78. ANS: G PTS: 1
79. ANS: L PTS: 1 80. ANS: D PTS: 1 81. ANS: A PTS: 1 82. ANS: C PTS: 1 83. ANS: B PTS: 1 84. ANS: B PTS: 1 85. ANS: F PTS: 1 86. ANS: D PTS: 1 87. ANS: C PTS: 1 88. ANS: H PTS: 1 89. ANS: C PTS: 1 90. ANS: E PTS: 1 91. ANS: B PTS: 1 SHORT ANSWER 110. ANS: 555 ul PTS: 1 111. ANS: 15 ul PTS: 1 112. ANS: Safranin PTS: 1 113. ANS: 35 ul PTS: 1 92. ANS: F PTS: 1 93. ANS: A PTS: 1 94. ANS: B PTS: 1 95. ANS: C PTS: 1 96. ANS: G PTS: 1 97. ANS: E PTS: 1 98. ANS: B PTS: 1 99. ANS: D PTS: 1 100. ANS: B PTS: 1 101. ANS: E PTS: 1
102. ANS: C PTS: 1 103. ANS: F PTS: 1 104. ANS: A PTS: 1 105. ANS: D PTS: 1 106. ANS: G PTS: 1 107. ANS: A PTS: 1 108. ANS: B PTS: 1 109. ANS: C PTS: 1