AP Biology - Problem Drill 10: Molecular and Human Genetics Question No. 1 of 10 Instructions: (1) Read the problem and answer choices carefully, (2) Work the problems on paper as 1. Which of the following statements about DNA is true? Question #01 (A) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is the blueprint of life; it is present in almost every cell in the body. (B) Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is the blueprint of life; it is present in almost every cell in the body. (C) Structurally, DNA is made up of 3 polymers of nucleotide in a complementarybased pair double helix. (D) The four different DNA nucleotides follow a strict base pairing arrangement: Guanine Thymine (3 hydrogen bonds) and Adenine Cytosine (2 hydrogen bonds). (E) The four different DNA nucleotides follow a strict base pairing arrangement: Uracil Cytosine (3 hydrogen bonds) and Adenine Thymine (2 hydrogen bonds). A. Correct! Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is the blueprint of life; it is present in almost every cell in the body. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is the blueprint of life; it is present in almost every cell in the body. Structurally, DNA is made up of 2 polymers of nucleotide in a complementarybased pair double helix. The four different DNA nucleotides follow a strict base pairing arrangement: Guanine Cytosine (3 hydrogen bonds) and Adenine Thymine (2 hydrogen bonds). The four different DNA nucleotides follow a strict base pairing arrangement: Guanine Cytosine (3 hydrogen bonds) and Adenine Thymine (2 hydrogen bonds). Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is the blueprint of life; it is present in almost every cell in the body. A copy from a male donor and a copy from a female donor, through fertilization, can create a human being. Structurally, DNA is made up of 2 polymers of nucleotide in a complementary-based pair double helix. These anti-parallel strands run in opposite direction from one another and are held together through hydrogen bonds. The structure of the double helix provides a major groove in which transcription factors can bind and impact gene expression. The four different DNA nucleotides follow a strict base pairing arrangement: Guanine Cytosine (3 hydrogen bonds) and Adenine Thymine (2 hydrogen bonds). The correct answer is (A).
Question No. 2 of 10 Instructions: (1) Read the problem and answer choices carefully, (2) Work the problems on paper as 2. Which of the following statements about a DNA replication is true? Question #02 (A) During DNA replication, the parental DNA is separated and each parent strand acts as a template for the formation of a new complementary strand. (B) During DNA replication, the parental DNA is not separated and acts as a template for the formation of a new complementary strand. (C) DNA replication often takes place in order for a cell to divide during mitosis. (D) DNA replication must take place before or after cell division. (E) Each daughter cell receives two strands of DNA from the parental cell. A. Correct! During DNA replication, the parental DNA is separated and each parent strand acts as a template for the formation of a new complementary strand. During DNA replication, the parental DNA is separated and each parent strand acts as a template for the formation of a new complementary strand. DNA replication must take place in order for a cell to divide during mitosis. DNA replication must take place in order for a cell to divide during mitosis. Each daughter cell receives one strand from the parental cell DNA, along with its one entirely new strand. DNA replication must take place in order for a cell to divide during mitosis. During DNA replication, the parental DNA is separated and each parent strand acts as a template for the formation of a new complementary strand. This is known as semiconservative DNA replication. Each daughter cell receives one strand from the parental cell DNA, along with its one entirely new strand. The correct answer is (A).
Question No. 3 of 10 Instructions: (1) Read the problem and answer choices carefully, (2) Work the problems on paper as 3. RNA. Question #03 (A) Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is usually single-stranded. It is made from a DNA blueprint. (B) Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is usually double-stranded. It is made from a DNA blueprint. (C) Messenger RNA (mrna) is the central component of the ribosome. (D) Messenger RNA (mrna) binds to trna and forms the central component of the ribosome. (E) DNA translates the message from the RNA to produce the correct protein. A. Correct! Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is usually single-stranded. It is made from a DNA blueprint. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is usually single-stranded. It is made from a DNA blueprint. Messenger RNA (mrna) binds to ribosomes and provides the template for protein translation. Messenger RNA (mrna) binds to ribosomes and provides the template for protein translation. RNA translates the message from the DNA to produce the correct protein. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is usually single-stranded. It is made from a DNA blueprint. RNA translates the message from the DNA to produce the correct protein. The different types of RNA include: (1) Messenger RNA (mrna) binds to ribosomes and provides the template for protein translation, (2) Transfer RNA (trna) transfers a specific amino acid to the growing polypeptide protein at the site of translation, (3) Ribosomal RNA (rrna ) the central component of the ribosome. It decodes messenger RNA and provides the actual binding site for the incoming trna. The correct answer is (A).
Question No. 4 of 10 4. Which of the following statements about protein translation is true? Question #04 (A) Protein translation is the process whereby nucleotides are assembled into a polypeptide chain or protein, based on the DNA code. (B) Protein translation is the process whereby ribonucleotides are assembled into a polypeptide chain or protein, based on the DNA code. (C) Elongation After the initiator mrna is bound to the P site, the next rrna is able to bind to the A site. (D) Elongation After the initiator trna is bound to the P site, the next trna is able to bind to the A site. (E) Termination Translation stops when one of three rrna codons moves into the A site on the mrna. A. Incorrect! Protein translation is the process whereby amino acids are assembled into a polypeptide chain or protein, based on the DNA code. Protein translation is the process whereby amino acids are assembled into a polypeptide chain or protein, based on the DNA code. Elongation After the initiator trna is bound to the P site, the next trna is able to bind to the A site. D. Correct! Elongation After the initiator trna is bound to the P site, the next trna is able to bind to the A site. Termination Translation stops when one of three termination codons moves into the A site on the mrna. Protein translation is the process whereby amino acids are assembled into a polypeptide chain or protein, based on the DNA code. The process involves the following steps: (1) Initiation Once the ribosome is assembled, initiator trna, carrying methionine, binds to the start site on the mrna. (2) Elongation After the initiator trna is bound to the P site, the next trna is able to bind to the A site. Amino acids are added to the growing polypeptide chain by forming a peptide bond with the previous amino acid. Next, the mrna is shifted by one codon, freeing up the A site to receive the next amino acid. (3) Termination Translation stops when one of three termination codons moves into the A site on the mrna. Release factors trigger the release of the new protein. The correct answer is (D).
Question No. 5 of 10 5. Which of the following statements about a Northern Blot is true? Question #05 (A) The Northern Blot technique allows the experimenter to detect and study the RNA from cells. (B) The Northern Blot technique allows the experimenter to detect and study the DNA from cells. (C) In general, total DNA is extracted from cells to perform a Northern blot, and then mrna can be isolated to study gene expression. (D) In general, only mrna is extracted from cells to perform a Northern blot, to study gene expression. (E) Once the RNA sample is extracted from the cells or tissue; it can be used without separation to probe for the RNA of interest. A. Correct! The Northern Blot technique allows the experimenter to detect and study the RNA from cells. The Northern Blot technique allows the experimenter to detect and study the RNA from cells. In general, total RNA is extracted from cells, and then mrna can be isolated to study gene expression. In general, total RNA is extracted from cells, and then mrna can be isolated to study gene expression. Once the RNA sample is extracted from the cells or tissue; it must be separated to probe for the RNA of interest. The Northern Blot technique allows the experimenter to detect and study the RNA from cells. In general, total RNA is extracted from cells, and then mrna can be isolated to study gene expression. Once the RNA sample is extracted from the cells or tissue, it must be separated to probe for the RNA of interest. RNA can be separated using gel electrophoresis. Gel electrophoresis involves applying a current to a gel matrix containing the RNA sample. RNA samples move through the gel and separate into bands based on their charge to mass ratio. After separation, they can be transferred to a blot membrane and probed for the RNA of interest using a specifically labeled probe. The correct answer is (A).
Question No. 6 of 10 6. Gene cloning. Question #06 (A) Gene cloning can be used to create many copies of a defined protein sequence. (B) Gene cloning can be used to create many copies of a defined DNA sequence. (C) The gene sequence is typically ligated into a human cell, which then is used to transform a bacterium for gene production. (D) The sequence of RNA or carbohydrate can then be used to test the effect of over-expression or deletion of that gene from the genetic material of cells. (E) The sequence of rdna or carbohydrate can then be used to test the effect of over-expression or deletion of that gene from the genetic material of cells. A. Incorrect! Gene cloning can be used to create many copies of a defined DNA sequence. B. Correct! Gene cloning can be used to create many copies of a defined DNA sequence. The gene sequence is typically ligated into a plasmid, which then is used to transform the target cell or bacteria for gene production. The sequence of DNA or gene can then be used to test the effect of over-expression or deletion of that gene from the genetic material of cells. The sequence of DNA or gene can then be used to test the effect of over-expression or deletion of that gene from the genetic material of cells. Gene cloning can be used to create many copies of a defined DNA sequence. The sequence of DNA or gene can then be used to test the effect of over-expression or deletion of that gene from the genetic material of cells. First, the DNA sequence of interest must be isolated. Next, the sequence is typically ligated into a plasmid, which then is used to transform the target cell or bacteria for gene production. The correct answer is (B).
Question No. 7 of 10 7. Which of the following statements about a human karyotype is true? Question #07 (A) A karyotype is a visual pattern of only the autosomes within cells. (B) A karyotype is a visual pattern of only the sex chromosomes within cells. (C) Normally, there are 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes, for a total of 46. (D) Normally, there are 21 pairs of autosomes and 2 pair of sex chromosomes, for a total of 46. (E) By using stains and probes, only the whole chromosome can be visualized. A. Incorrect! A karyotype is a visual pattern of the chromosomes within cells. A karyotype is a visual pattern of the chromosomes within cells. C. Correct! Normally, there are 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes, for a total of 46. Normally, there are 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes, for a total of 46. By using stains and probes, whole chromosomes, short and long arms, and even small regions on chromosomes can be visualized. Cytogenetics involves the study of chromosomal abnormalities and deficiencies. As part of these studies, a karyotype is prepared. A karyotype is a visual pattern of the chromosomes within cells. By using stains and probes, whole chromosomes, short and long arms, and even small regions on chromosomes can be visualized. Normally, there are 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes, for a total of 46. Karyotypes can reveal the sex of the individual, as well as more finite details of the health. An example would be Down Syndrome, which is evidenced by 3 copies of all or part of chromosome 21. The correct answer is (C).
Question No. 8 of 10 8. Sex-linked traits. Question #08 (A) X-linked means the gene of a particular trait resides on either the X or Y chromosome. (B) X-linked means the gene of a particular trait resides predominately on the X chromosome, but sometimes on the Y chromosome. (C) Y-linked traits appear only in males and are only passed from father to son or daughter. (D) Y-linked traits appear only in males and are only passed from father to son. (E) Males contribute either an X or 2Y chromosomes during fertilization. A. Incorrect! X-linked means the gene of a particular trait resides on the X chromosome. X-linked means the gene of a particular trait resides on the X chromosome. Y-linked traits appear only in males and are only passed from father to son. D. Correct! Y-linked traits appear only in males and are only passed from father to son. Males contribute either an X or Y chromosome during fertilization. X-linked means the gene of a particular trait resides on the X chromosome. For example: A gene (e.g. hemophilia) is recessive and located on the X chromosome; this is the inheritance pattern for that gene. Y-linked traits appear only in males and are only passed from father to son. Males contribute either an X or Y chromosome during fertilization. If an X chromosome is contributed, the genotype will be XX female; if a Y is contributed, the genotype will be XY, resulting in male offspring. The correct answer is (D).
Question No. 9 of 10 9. Which of the following statements about the population genetics is true? Question #09 (A) The study of gene allele frequency distribution across a population is known as population genetics. (B) The study of gene allele frequency distribution across a set of gametes is known as population genetics. (C) Genotype-phenotype maps can depict changes in phenotype or morphology in only unrelated, distant genotypes. (D) Genotype-phenotype maps support the idea that identical genotypes can only produce identical phenotypes. (E) This type of study can only address changes in populations, such as animal migration and geographic location. A. Correct! The study of gene allele frequency distribution across a population is known as population genetics. The study of gene allele frequency distribution across a population is known as population genetics. Genotype-phenotype maps can depict changes in phenotype or morphology, even though the genotype is very similar or identical in some cases. Genotype-phenotype maps can depict changes in phenotype or morphology, even though the genotype is very similar or identical in some cases. This type of study addresses changes in populations, such as adaptation and speciation. The study of gene allele frequency distribution across a population is known as population genetics. This type of study addresses changes in populations, such as adaptation and speciation. The frame work of population genetics, involving the mapping of a set of genotypes to a set of phenotypes, is called a genotypephenotype map. Genotype-phenotype maps can depict changes in phenotype or morphology, even though the genotype is very similar or identical in some cases. The correct answer is (A).
Question No. 10 of 10 10. Which of the following statements about inherited diseases is true? Question #10 (A) In the USA, genetic counselors are trained in genetic disease outcomes, possible treatments, and heritability but there is no certification board for this profession. (B) In the USA, genetic counselors are trained in genetic disease outcomes, possible treatments, and heritability and they are certified by the American Board of Genetic Counseling. (C) Genetic counselors discuss and advise patients about their definite and eventual disease that will afflict them based on their genetic profile. (D) An example of a disease that has a genetic marker would be Down Syndrome, which is evidenced by only 1 copy of all or part of chromosome 21. (E) The Northern Blot technique could be used to detect and study the DNA from cells, and possibly be utilized in studying a genetic inherited disease. A. Incorrect! In the USA, genetic counselors are trained in genetic disease outcomes, possible treatments, and heritability and they are certified by the American Board of Genetic Counseling. B. Correct! In the USA, genetic counselors are trained in genetic disease outcomes, possible treatments, and heritability and they are certified by the American Board of Genetic Counseling. Genetic counselors discuss and advise patients about the risk of potential inherited disorders. An example of a disease that has a genetic marker would be Down Syndrome, which is evidenced by 3 copies of all or part of chromosome 21. The Northern Blot technique could be used to detect and study the RNA from cells, and possibly be utilized in studying a genetic inherited disease. Genetic counselors discuss and advise patients about the risk of potential inherited disorders. The likelihood of disease transmission in children and the effects of the inherited disease or disorder are presented. In the USA, genetic counselors are trained in genetic disease outcomes, possible treatments, and heritability. This education is in addition to their previous biology, psychology or medical background. They are certified by the American Board of Genetic Counseling. Normally, there are 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes, for a total of 46. Karyotypes can reveal the sex of the individual, as well as more finite details of the health. An example would be Down Syndrome, which is evidenced by 3 copies of all or part of chromosome 21. The correct answer is (B).