General Biology 115, Summer 2014 Exam II: Form B June 23, 2014 Name Student Number For questions 1 2, use the following information. A particular plasmid (pbr322) has two unique gene sequences that confer antibiotic resistance. Sequence I confers resistance to penicillin. Sequence II confers resistance to tetracycline. Sequence II also has a unique EcoR1 restriction enzyme site that can be used to insert the gene that the scientist wants to clone. 1. A scientist wants to clone a gene for interferon (a protein involved in immune function) into E. coli bacteria using the pbr322 plasmid. After attempting to insert the plasmid, the scientist was unable to grow the bacteria in media containing either penicillin or tetracycline. Which of the following could be assumed given the results? a. The plasmid did not infect E. coli and included the interferon gene b. The plasmid infected E. coli but did not include the interferon gene c. The plasmid infected E. coli and included the interferon gene d. The plasmid did not infect E. coli 2. A scientist wants to clone a gene for FSH into E. coli bacteria using the pbr322 plasmid. After attempting to insert the plasmid, the scientist was able to grow the bacteria in media containing penicillin but not tetracycline. Which of the following were likely to have occurred? a. The plasmid did not infect E. coli and did not include the FSH gene b. The plasmid infected E. coli but did not include the FSH gene c. The plasmid infected E. coli and included the FSH gene d. The plasmid did not infect E. coli and included the FSH gene 3. How many primers were required to replicate a strand of DNA if one leading strand and 12 Okazaki fragments were generated during replication? a. One per nucleotide b. Two for the leading strand, one for each Okazaki fragment c. One for the leading strand, two per Okazaki fragment d. One for the leading strand, one per Okazaki fragment e. Two for the leading strand, two for each Okazaki fragment 4. Which of the following are more numerous? a. Types of nucleotides b. Types of codons c. Types of amino acids d. Types of trna s e. B & D
5. The base sequence on one strand of DNA reads: AGCCTTATCG. Of the following, which is the correct sequence of mrna coded by this sequence? a. TCGGAATAGC b. UCGGAAUAGC c. TCUUAATAUC d. GATTCCGCTA e. GAUUCCGCUA Use the information in the following table to answer question 6. 1 Nucleotides are added to the 3' end of the growing strand 2 Okazaki fragments are produced 3 to 5 3 Pyrophosphates are created when nucleotides are added 4 Synthesis of the leading strand is semi-conservative 5 Helicases unwind the parental double helix to expose the template 6. Which of the above is TRUE? a. 1 & 3 b. 1 & 5 c. 1, 3 & 5 d. 1, 2, 3 & 5 e. All of the above 7. Of the following, which unique technology makes sequencing by synthesis possible? a. Heat tolerant DNA polymerase b. Restriction enzymes c. Reverse transcriptase d. A & C 8. If a genetic trait with two alleles, one dominant (D) and one recessive (d), is controlled by sexlinked inheritance, what proportion of female offspring would have the recessive phenotype if the mother is a homozygous dominant and the father expresses the dominant trait? a. 0.0 b. 0.25 c. 0.50 d. 1.0 e. Cannot be determined
Use the following list to answer Question 9. 1 Prophase of mitosis 5 Prophase 1 of meiosis 2 Metaphase of mitosis 6 Prophase 2 of meiosis 3 Anaphase of mitosis 7 Anaphase 1 of meiosis 4 Telophase of mitosis 8 Anaphase 2 of meiosis 9. Of the phases of cell division listed above, which may include chromosomes that have exchanged homologous regions of maternal and paternal chromosomes? a. 5 only b. 5 & 6 c. 5 & 7 d. 5, 6 & 7 e. 5, 6, 7 & 8 10. Of the following, which accepts the electrons released when water undergoes photolysis? a. Ferredoxin b. The primary electron acceptor of photosystem I s electron transport chain c. The primary electron acceptor of photosystem II s electron transport chain d. ATP e. NADP+ 11. In which direction does the mrna move through the ribosome translocation complex? a. 5 to 3 upstream away from the initiation site; 3 to 5 downstream away from the initiation site b. 3 to 5 downstream away from the initiation site c. 5 to 3 downstream away from the initiation site d. 3 to 5 upstream away from the initiation site e. 5 to 3 upstream away from the initiation site 12. Of the following, which are functions of trna? a. Identify and bind with codons in the P site of the ribosome b. Bind specific amino acid residues c. Form covalent bonds between neighboring amino acids d. A & B Use the following information to answer Questions 13 14. A scientist uses a restriction enzyme (Eco R1) to cut DNA. Three bands can be seen when the DNA is run on an electrophoresis gel. 13. When compared to DNA of known size, the bands were determined to be 8, 5 and 3 kd (kilodaltons is a measure of DNA size). Which of the following MAY be true for the original piece of DNA? A. The restriction enzyme cut the DNA two times B. The restriction enzyme cut the DNA three times C. The DNA was at least 15 kd in size D. A & C E. A, B & C
14. When the DNA produced in the original experiment was then digested by another restriction enzyme and run on an electrophoresis gel the scientist only saw two bands. One band was 5 kd, the other 3 kd. Which of the following could explain the results? A. The second restriction enzyme did not cut the DNA B. The second restriction enzyme cut the 8 kd band once C. The second restriction enzyme cut both the 8 kd and 5 kd bands D. The second restriction enzyme cut all three bands E. The scientist made and error 15. In regards to the cell cycle, which of the following is NOT TRUE? a. Cells in G0 must return G1 to divide b. G1 and G2 occurs during the cell cycle of both somatic cells and gametes c. Cytoplasmic organelles are duplicated during G2 d. Chromosomes are duplicated during S phase e. A & C 16. In regards to the phases of meiosis, which of the following is TRUE? a. Chromatin is duplicated prior to each nuclear division b. During meiosis I, two kinetochores are attached to the centromeres of each sister chromatid c. Cells produced in meiosis I are haploid d. Homologous chromosome pairs separate during anaphase II e. B & C 17. Of the following, which accepts the electrons that move through the electron transport chain of the P680 system? a. Ferredoxin b. P700 molecules c. The primary electron acceptor of photosystem II d. P680 molecules e. NADP+ 18. Blood type is has a poly-allelic mode of inheritance. The A and B alleles are co-dominant, i is recessive. What proportion of offspring can receive blood from an O -type individual if the mother is a heterozygote, Ai, and the father is a heterozygote, Bi? a. 0.0 b. 0.25 c. 0.50 d. 1.0 e. Cannot be determined
19. A sequence of DNA consists of 800 nucleotides. The first 60 and last 20 nucleotides are not expressed. Approximately how many pyrophosphates must be produced in the synthesis of this protein? a. 720 b. 80 c. 240 d. 60 e. Cannot be determined from this information Use the following list to answer Question 20. 1 Prophase of mitosis 5 Prophase 1 of meiosis 2 Metaphase of mitosis 6 Prophase 2 of meiosis 3 Anaphase of mitosis 7 Anaphase 1 of meiosis 4 Telophase of mitosis 8 Anaphase 2 of meiosis 20. Histones may be found in which of the phases listed above? a. 1, 5 & 6 b. 3, 4 & 5 c. 6 & 8 d. 1, 2, 3 & 4 e. Histones are present in all phases 21. All of the following are characteristics of replication EXCEPT: a. DNA polymerase can only elongate from the 5' end to the 3' end b. Leading strand replication is continuous c. Lagging strand replication produces Okazaki fragments d. Priming occurs after elongation e. Both DNA molecules are replicated 22. All of the following are characteristics of the Calvin cycle EXCEPT: a. Most carbons that enter the cycle as CO2 are recycled b. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is the primary product of the Calvin cycle c. More ATP is required than NADPH d. A & C 23. Of the following, which is the function of aminoacyl-trna synthetase? a. Identify the anticodon on the mrna b. Reposition trna s in the large ribosomal subunit binding sites c. Translocate the peptide chain from the P site to the E site d. Covalently bond neighboring amino acids
24. Which of the following describes the collection of cloned DNA created from isolated mrna? a. Genomic library b. Complementary library c. RNA library d. Cloned library e. Recombinant library 25. A sequence of DNA consists of 600 nucleotides. What is the maximum number of codons in the mrna produced when the DNA is transcribed? A. 1800 B. 600 C. 300 D. 200 E. Cannot be determined from this information 26. Of the following, which best describes how the free energy generated during the reactions of Photosystem I is utilized? a. Provide the energy required for hydrolysis b. Provide the energy required for ATP synthase c. Provide the energy required for substrate level phosphorylation of ATP d. Provide the energy required for proton pumps e. Provide the energy required to reduce NADP+ 27. In regards chlorophyll, which of the following is NOT TRUE? a. Chlorophyll a and b differ based on the light each maximally absorbs b. Chlorophyll a and b differ based on the metal ion located in the porphyrin ring c. When illuminated, chlorophyll a emits more electrons than chlorophyll b d. B & C 28. In regards to DNA technology, which of the following is NOT TRUE? a. Plasmids are naturally occurring DNA in plants b. Restriction enzymes allow bacteria to digest foreign DNA c. Migration through an electrophoresis gel depends on the size of the DNA d. Recombinant DNA is formed when foreign DNA is added to a host cell s DNA e. B & C 29. Of the following, for what do STOP codons code? a. Amino acids that make up the poly-a tail b. Release factors that cause the peptide to be released c. The amino acid phenylalanine d. Allosteric regulatory factors
30. For a given gene, an individual has one recessive allele and one dominant allele. The recessive allele CANNOT contribute to the observed phenotype in which of the following patterns of inheritance? a. Sex-linked inheritance b. Polygenetic inheritance c. Incomplete dominance d. Polyallelic inheritance e. B & D 31. All of the following are characteristics of DNA EXCEPT: a. The width of the double helix increases with each turn b. Each turn has the same number of nucleotide pairs c. The sugar-phosphate backbone runs through the center of the molecule with bases extending towards the surface of the molecule d. A & C 32. Of the following, which best explains why the addition dideoxynucleotides terminate the synthesis of DNA? a. Dideoxynucleotides allosterically inhibit DNA polymerase b. Dideoxynucleotides cannot form phosphodiester bonds c. Dideoxynucleotides cannot fit into the active site of DNA polymerase d. Dideoxynucleotides prevent helicases from unwinding DNA Use the following table to answer Question 33. 1 Small ribosomal subunit 4 E site 2 Large ribosomal subunit 5 A site 3 P site 6 mrna binding site 339. trna MAY be bound to which of the above? a. 2, 3 & 5 b. 1, 3 & 5 c. 3 & 5 d. 3, 5 & 6 e. 3, 4, 5 & 6 34. Of the following, which best describes the function of the kinetochore? a. Connects homologous regions of sister chromatids b. Attaches the spindle to the centriole c. Organizes the sister chromosomes on the metaphase plate d. Disassembles the molecules from which the spindle is formed e. Identifies and separates maternal and paternal chromosomes
35. Which of the following sources of genetic variation, which require the formation of a zygote? a. Independent assortment b. Random fertilization c. Crossing over d. Independent segregation e. A & D 36. Which of the following terms describes regions of DNA that codes for promoter region of a protein? a. Replication fork b. Intron c. Exon d. Initiation site e. Primer 37. All of the following reactions are associated with the thylakoid membrane EXCEPT: a. Photolysis b. Chemiosmosis c. Carbon fixation d. Electron transport e. C & D 38. Which of the following term describes replication where the parental strands remain intact and the second DNA molecule is completely new? a. Conservative replication b. Semi-conservative replication c. Dispersive replication d. Primed replication e. Continuous replication 39. Which of the following is the phenotypic ratio observed from mating a homozygous dominant and a heterozygote assuming polyallelic inheritance? a. 1:1 b. 3:1 c. 1:2:1 d. 4:0 e. Cannot be determined 40. Of the following, which are primarily associated with photosystem I? a. Chlorophyll a b. ATP synthesis c. Chemiosmosis d. Oxygen formation
Use the following information to answer Questions 41-42. In dogs, short hair (S) is dominant over long (s); black hair (B) is dominant over brown (b). The loci for these genes are unlinked. A female from a pure breeding line for short haired, brown dogs is mated to a male homozygous for long hair and heterozygous for black hair. 41. Which of the following is TRUE for the F1 generation? a. All possible offspring are heterozygous for short hair b. None of the offspring is homozygous for black hair c. 50% of the offspring are homozygous for brown hair d. A & B 42. Assuming a black haired male from the F1 generation is mated with a female with the same traits as the female in the cross above, what proportion of the offspring is heterozygous for short hair and black hair? a. 0.1 b. 0.25 c. 0.5 d. 0.75 43 All the following are characteristics of PCR EXCEPT: a. During PCR, only one strand of DNA is sequenced b. The DNA is heated to separate the DNA strands c. Taq is a unique type of DNA polymerase that can convert mrna into dsdna d. After the third cycle, each subsequent cycles doubles the amount of DNA synthesized e. A & C
44. All of the following are characteristics of chloroplast EXCEPT: a. Carbohydrate synthesis occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast b. Plant chloroplasts include at least three membranes c. The ph in the intermembrane space is lower than within the thylakoid membrane d. The granum is found within the thylakoid membrane e. C & D 45. Of the following, which are characteristic of a cell in anaphase of mitosis? a. Chromatids are joined by centromeres b. 4N copies of the genome within the plasma membrane of the cell c. Parental and maternal chromatids present at opposite poles of the cell d. Sister chromatids located at the poles of the cell 46. Which of the following best describes why the previously non-pathological R strain streptococcus pneumonia became pathogenic after it was mixed with heat killed S strain bacteria? a. The R type became encapsulated by the polysaccharide coat of the S type b. Plasmids were transferred from the R type to the S type which protected it from the heat treatment c. The R type was transfected by the DNA of the S type and expressed it genes d. The S type coat caused the symptoms in the infected animals Use the following list to answer Question 47 1 Metaphase of mitosis 5 Prophase II of meiosis 2 Anaphase of mitosis 6 Metaphase 1 of meiosis 3 Telophase of mitosis 7 Metaphase II of meiosis 4 Prophase I of meiosis 8 Anaphase II of meiosis 47. Which of the phases listed above may a haploid cell that has intact centromeres enter next? a. 1 & 2 b. 4 & 6 c. 5 & 7 d. 5, 7 & 8 e. 7 & 8 48. Enthalpy increases during which of the following photosynthetic reactions? a. During photosystem II chemiosmosis b. During photosystem II electron transport c. During ribulose bisphospate production during the Calvin cycle d. During glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate formation during the Calvin cycle e. C & D
49. In regards to nucleic acids, which of the following is NOT TRUE? a. The backbone of DNA is made of phosphate groups on the 5 carbon linked to the 3 carbon on neighboring sugar molecules b. DNA and RNA both include a five carbon sugar c. Cytosine and guanine can form covalent bonds to stabilize the DNA double helix d. Adenine is found in both RNA and DNA e. C & D 50. Carbon dioxide combines with which of the following intermediates during C4 carbon fixation? a. Glyceraldehyde-3-P b. Malate c. Ribulose bisphosphate d. Phosphoenolpyruvate e. C & D