a. a strategy for determining the firm's overall attitude toward growth and the way it will manage its businesses or product lines

Transcription

1 Q1. Which of the following best describes business strategy? a. a strategy for determining the firm's overall attitude toward growth and the way it will manage its businesses or product lines b. a strategy at the business-unit or product-line level that focuses on improving a firm's competitive position c. a strategy by which managers in specific areas decide how best to achieve corporate goals through productivity d. a strategy that assists first-line managers in making day-to-day decisions about motivating employees e. a strategy that integrates an organization's marketing goals into a cohesive whole by focusing on the ideal product mix to achieve maximum profit potential Q2. Which of the following best describes functional strategy? a. a strategy for determining the firm's overall attitude toward growth and the way it will manage its businesses or product lines b. a strategy at the business-unit or product-line level that focuses on improving a firm's competitive position c. a strategy by which managers in specific areas decide how best to achieve corporate goals through productivity d. a strategy that assists first-line managers in making day-to-day decisions about motivating employees e. a strategy that integrates an organization's marketing goals into a cohesive whole by focusing on the ideal product mix to achieve maximum profit potential Q3. The first step in the planning process is determining goals. What is the next step? a. developing a strategic mission b. developing a comprehensive strategy c. developing an array of tactics d. developing an operational plan e. developing a functioning budget Q4. A strong corporate culture directs employees' efforts and helps everyone work toward the same goals. Q5. When conducting a SWOT analysis of an organization, which question can help management brainstorm for the weaknesses section of the analysis? a. What external changes present interesting possibilities? b. What aspect of the organization's vision can be altered?

2 c. What necessary skills do the organization's employees currently lack? d. What does the organization offer that makes it stand out from other organizations? e. What external economic forces can affect the organization's bottom line? Q6. What does e-partnering involve? a. buying shares of small companies that provide technology unavailable to the "purchasing" company b. buying shares of small companies that are similar to the "purchasing" firm c. linking up to the inventory records of another company d. sharing a Web server with another company e. advertising another company on the "purchasing" company's Web site Q7. What type of analysis focuses on external factors? a. organizational analysis b. governmental analysis c. environmental analysis d. functional analysis e. financial analysis Q8. Hewlett-Packard decides to move toward a more centralized structure. This is an example of which function in the management process? a. planning b. leading c. organizing d. controlling e. monitoring Q9. Which of the following managers depend most on conceptual skills? a. first-line managers b. top managers c. middle managers d. marketing managers e. financial managers Q10. When a sales manager compares actual sales to the quarterly sales quota, she is performing the controlling function of management.

3 Q11. What structure does an organization with little or no formal structure and with only a handful of permanent employees use? a. team structure b. virtual structure c. learning structure d. flexible structure e. balanced structure Q12. What kind of departmentalization happens when an organization is divided into operations related to different products? a. functional departmentalization b. process departmentalization c. customer departmentalization d. geographic departmentalization e. regional departmentalization Q13. What are groups of operating employees called who are empowered to plan and organize their tasks and to perform those tasks with a minimum of supervision? a. task forces b. standing committees c. work teams d. division committees e. board members Q14. Which of the following clarifies structure and shows employees where they fit into a firm's operations? a. delegation b. departmentalization c. organization charts d. mission statement e. job descriptions Q15. Frequently, the informal organization effectively alters a company's formal structure.

4 Q16. Which of the following organizational systems is represented by organization chart and the formal assignment of authority? a. networking b. formal organization c. informal organization d. grapevine e. sales forecasting Q17. With relatively few layers of managers, what do decentralized organizations tend to reflect? a. tall organizational structure b. short organizational structure c. flat organizational structure d. elliptical organizational structure e. triangular organizational structure Q18. What style of organization relies almost entirely on employees working on a common project, with little or no underlying functional hierarchy? a. team b. virtual c. learning d. flexible e. stratified Q19. Which of the following begins when a manager assigns responsibility to a subordinate? a. centralization b. delegation c. liability d. authority e. training Q20. Acme Oil Company has three divisions: Exploration, Extraction, and Refining. This is an example of process departmentalization. Q21. Two-factor theory examines the relationship between effort and performance.

5 Q22. Positive reinforcement is used when a company or manager provides a reward when employee exhibit desired behaviors. Q23. Hygiene factors affect motivation only if they are absent or fail to meet expectations. Q24. Because job permanence is less likely, which of the following are some companies offering in order to keep the psychological contract in balance? a. additional promotions b. additional vacation time c. fewer training opportunities d. flexible scheduling e. additional sick days Q25. The extent to which people are self-aware is an aspect of which of the following? a. attitude b. emotional intelligence c. negative emotionality d. social skills e. empathy Q26. According to the classical theory of motivation, attention from the supervisor is more of a motivator than money. Q27. If an employee needs to feel that she is a part of a team and yet her position involves working alone, which of the following may not be right? a. the pay scale b. the person-job fit c. the employee's attitude d. the organization's plan e. the team structure

6 Q28. An employee with a low level of social skills would be unlikely to do which of the following? a. be very detail oriented b. circulate a get-well card c. produce creative work d. work well independently e. track milestones effectively Q29. What is the Hawthorne effect? a. the belief that employees are motivated by money alone b. the conclusion that workers are more productive if management pays attention to them c. the determination that the level of lighting in a workplace has no effect on productivity d. the theory that workers are more productive if their jobs are analyzed closely e. the unspoken agreement between the employee and the employer Q30. Which of the following allows people to choose their working hours by adjusting a standard work schedule on a daily or weekly basis? a. job enrichment b. flextime programs c. job enlargement d. job redesign e. work sharing Q31. In a business, whose job is it to draw up plans to transform resources into products and bring together basic resources, such as knowledge, physical materials, equipment, and labor? a. CEO b. operations manager c. quality manager d. floor foreman e. supply manager Q32. Logan Aluminum makes coils of aluminum that it supplies to customer companies that use it to make beverage cans. Logan uses a schedule that specifies how many tons of each type of coil will be produced each week. What is this schedule called? a. master production schedule b. detailed schedule c. Gantt chart

7 d. staff schedule e. PERT chart Q33. Which of the following best describes ISO 9000? a. the concept that all employees are valuable contributors to a firm's business, and should be entrusted with decisions regarding their work b. the redesigning of business processes to improve performance, quality, and productivity c. a program certifying that a factory, laboratory, or office has met the quality management standards of the International Organization for Standardization d. a certification program attesting to the fact that a factory, laboratory, or office has improved environmental performance e. the process of evaluating all work activities to determine the value they add for customers Q34. Operations control includes materials management and quality control. Q35. Which term refers to all the activities involved in making products "goods and services" for customers? a. operations b. processes c. planning d. scheduling e. performance Q36. Which of the following best describes total quality management? a. the principle that quality belongs to each person who creates it while performing a job b. the consistency of a product's quality from unit to unit c. the sum of all activities involved in getting high-quality products into the marketplace d. the process by which a company analyzes a competitor's products to identify desirable improvements e. a certification program attesting that an operations process has met rigorous requirements Q37. Firms that make only tangible products are engaged in goods production.

8 Q38. Services are more tangible, more customized, and more storable than most products. Q39. Which of the following is a scheduling tool that breaks down large projects into steps to be performed and specifies the time required to perform each one? a. Myers graphic b. critical path chart c. Gantt chart d. process analysis graph e. master schedule Q40. What term describes the special ability that production does especially well to outperform the competition? a. supply chain management b. total quality management c. process engineering d. operations capability e. value-added analysis