ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES POLITY PART II + HUMAN & ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY

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1 ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES POLITY PART II + HUMAN & ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SET NUMBER IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. More than one response will be treated as wrong answer. 5. In case you find any discrepancy in this test booklet in any question(s) or the Responses; a written representation explaining the details of such alleged discrepancy, be submitted within three days, indicating the Question No(s) and the Test Booklet Series, in which the discrepancy is alleged. Representation not received within time shall not be entertained at all. 6. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 7. All items carry equal marks. 8. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (-0.33 %) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. There will be no penalty for a question which is left blank. 9. Before you proceed to mark in the Response Sheet, the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Response Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admit Card and Instructions. 10. While writing Name and Roll No. on the top of the Response Sheet in appropriate boxes use "ONLY BLACK BALL POINT PEN". 11. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Response Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Response Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO 1 AIPTS-SAT-GS Byju s Classes:

2 Q1) Consider the following statements 1. Agriculture, forestry and fishing are classified as primary activities. 2. Manufacturing, mining as secondary activities. 3. Transport, communication and Jobs related to research and developing ideas as tertiary activity. Which of the following statement is/are true? b) 1, 2 only c) 2, 3 only d) All the above Q2) Which one of the following is the correct sequence in terms of Installed Grid Interactive Renewable Power Capacity in India? a) Wind power > Solar power > Biomass power> Small hydro power b) Solar power > Wind power > Small hydro power >Biomass power c) Small hydro power > Wind power > Small solar power> biomass power d) Small hydro power > Solar power > Wind power > Biomass power Q3) Ports which are collection centers where the goods are brought from different countries for export a) Ports of call b) Entrepot Ports c) Naval Ports d) Packet Station Q4) Consider the following statements 1. Industries can be located in a wide variety of places. 2. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise. The above statements describe a) Foot Loose Industries b) Manufacturing Industries c) Household Industries of the above Q5) Consider the following statements related to India s Thorium reserves 1. India s thorium is mostly found in a contiguous belt formed by its eastern coastal areas 2. India has the largest reserve of Thorium. Q6) In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found? 1. Cambay basin in Gujarat 2. Assam- Arakan basin in Northeast India 3. Gondwana basin 4. Krishna Godavari basin Which of the following options are correct? b) 1, 2 only c) 1, 2, 3 only d) All Q7) Consider the following statements 1. India is the only country in the world producing all the four known commercial varieties of silk. 2. About 80% of the silk produced in the country is of mulberry silk, majority of which is produced in the southern states. Q8) Match the items associated with Geographical Indication in India i Nakshi Kantha A. Chhattisgarh ii Bastar Dhokra B. West Bengal iii Kani Shawl C. Jammu &Kashmir iv Channapatna Toys D. Karnataka Select the correct answer using the codes given below: i ii iii iv a) B A C D b) D A C B c) A C B D d) B D A C Q9. Which one of the following is not a correct match? a) Silver Revolution -- Egg b) Black Revolution -- Fertilizer c) Golden Revolution -- Horticulture d) Yellow Revolution -- Oil Seeds Q10) Consider the following states with reference to 2011 census 1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Maharashtra 3. Bihar The correct sequence of these states in descending order in terms of population is a) 1>2>3 b) 3>2>1 c) 1>3>2 d) 3>1>2 Q11) Select the correct answer using the code given below: List I (Ore) List II (Place) a. Copper 1. Mayurbhanj b. Iron 2. Shimoga c. Manganese 3. Kodarma d. Mica 4. Khetri Codes: a b c d (a) (b) (c) (d)

3 Q12) What are the Non-geographical location factors for industries? 1. Capital investment 2. Raw material 3. Government Policy b) 1, 2 only c) 1, 3 only d) All Q13) Consider the following matches of tribes with states they are found in 1. Jarawa Andaman and Nicobar 2. Gaddi Jammu and Kashmir 3. Khasi Meghalaya 4 Bishnoi Madhya Pradesh Select the correct matches a) 1, 2 only b) 2, 3 only c) 1, 3 only Q14) Which Indian state has maximum percentage of tribal population? a) Mizoram b) Tamil Nadu c) Jammu and Kashmir d) Assam Q15) To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do a) Promoting Skill development b) Introducing more social security scheme c) Reducing infant mortality rate d) Privatization of higher education Q16) The age-sex triangular shaped pyramid with a wide base indicates a) Expanding Population b) Constant Population c) Declining Population of the above Q17) Consider the following Statements, 1) Assam accounts for half of India s tea output. 2) With reference to coffee and tea plantations, it has been suggested that micro application of nutrients and rainwater harvesting can help beat back vagaries of weather. Q18. Which of the following are the indigenous cattle breeds? 1. Gir 2. Sahiwal 3. Deoni 4. Red Sindhi a) 1, 2 only b) 1, 2, 4 only c) 1, 2, 3 only d) All Q19) Cities associated with Industries List I (City) List II (Industries) a. Vishakhapatnam 1.Glass-Bangles b. Surath 2.Cotton Textile c. Jaipur 3.Jewelry d. Firozabad 4.Ship-Building Codes: a b c d a) b) c) d) Q20) Which of the following are a large Berber ethnic confederation. They principally inhabit the Sahara Desert, in a vast area stretching from far south-western Libya to southern Algeria, Niger and Mali. a) Kurdish b) Tuareg c) Madhesi d) Aymara Q21) In India, census town refers to 1. Population exceeds 5, At least 75% of main working population is employed outside the agricultural sector. 3. Minimum population density of 400 persons per sq km Which of the statements given above is / are correct? b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 Q22) Importance of Tides are 1. Desilting 2. Navigation 3. Fishing 3. Generation of electricity Select the correct answer using the codes below. c) 1, 3, 4 only d) All Q23) Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of uranium? a) Namibia b) Canada c) Kazakhstan d) Australia Q24) With reference to Inland water transportation in India, 1.Freight transportation by waterways is highly underutilised in India compared to other large countries and geographic areas like the United States, China and the European Union. 3

4 2.The National Waterways Act, 2016 identifies additional 101 waterways as national waterways with an objective to promote fuel efficient, cost effective and environment friendly mode of transport. Q25) Which of the following is/are the characteristic/ characteristics of Indian coal? 1. High ash content 2. Low sulphur content 3. Low ash fusion temperature Select the correct answer using the codes given below. b) 1, 2 only c) 1, 3 only d) All Q26) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Board) List II (Headquarters) a. Silk Board 1. Bengaluru b. Rubber Board 2. Guntur c. Tobacco Board 3. Kottayam d. Dairy devlopment board 4. Anand Codes: a b c d a) b) c) d) Q27) Consider the following statements related to temperate grasslands 1. Temperate grasslands are located between 30 deg to 60 deg latitude in the inner part of the continents at both hemisphere and has moderate rainfall. 2.sparsely populated area and high fertile soil, agriculture has been highly mechanized for greater production. Q28) The first port in the country to implement logistics data tagging of containers with the help of RFID Radio frequency Identification tag is a) Para dip port, Odish b) Jawaharlal Nehru port, Maharashtra c) Mangalore port, Karnataka d) Vishakhapatnam port, Andhra Pradesh Q29. Consider the following statements 1. Western Ghats in Karnataka receive more rainfall than western ghats of Maharashtra and Kerala, during Monsoon. 2. The Eastern coast receives more rainfall than western coast. Q30) The Eight Core Industries comprise nearly 38 % of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). which one of the following sector is not covered? a) coal production b) Electricity generation c) Textile production d) Fertilizer production Q31) Consider the following statements related to food processing industry in India 1.The Scheme of Mega Food Park aims at providing a mechanism to link agricultural production to the market by bringing together farmers, processors and retailers so as to ensure maximizing value addition, minimizing wastage, increasing farmers income and creating employment opportunities particularly in rural sector. 2. The Government has placed food processing as a priority sector under Make in India with 100 per cent foreign direct investment. Which of the above statements is/are not correct? Q32) A state in India has the following characteristics: 1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid. 2. Its central part produces cotton. 3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops. Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics? a) Andhra Pradesh. b) Gujarat c) Karnataka d) Tamil Nadu. Q33) Consider the following statements related to fishing in India, 1. Kerala is the leading fish producing state in India. 2. Inland fisheries are significant than other types in India. 3. Catla, Rohu and Mackerel are the common fish varieties found in the Indian subcontinent. Which of the statements given above are correct? b) 1 and 3 only d) 1,2 and 3 Q34) Sugarcane grown in subtropical region in India has lower productivity than that is grown in tropical regions. 4

5 what is/are the reasons of higher productivity in tropical regions 1. Yearlong Crushing Seasons 2. Absence of frost formation 3. Cooperatives a) 2 only. b) 2, 3 only. c) 1,2 only. Q35) Consider the following statements related to demographic changes in India 1. Population growth rate actually fell by nearly 4% from 2001 to 2011, the largest decline since independence in Life expectancy has nearly doubled in India since the 1950s from 38.7 for men and 37.1 for women to 64.4 for men and 67.6 for women today. Q36) Which one of the following industries is not a raw material- localized industry? a) Cotton Textile Industry b) Sugar Industry c) Cement Industry d) Glass Industry Q37) Which of the following statements is not correct? a) Changpa Tribe belong to Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir. b) The Shompen tribe is one of the two Mongoloid tribes that inhabit the Nicobar Islands in the union territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. c) The people known as Todas live in the Nilgiri area. d) The Baiga tribe of central India are one of the scheduled tribes of Gujarath. Q38) Which one of the following is the correct sequence in terms of Land use pattern in India? a) Net sown area > Barren land > Forest cover b) Barren land > Forest cover > Net sown area c) Forest cover > Barren land > Net sown area d) Net sown area > Forest area > Barren land Q39) Consider the following statements related to National Civil Aviation Policy 1.The requirement of 5 years of domestic flying for starting international operations is removed. 2.The Policy lays focus on regional connectivity with an aim of providing affordable aviation services. Q40) Consider the following statements 1. The water distribution on earth shows that most water in the Earth's atmosphere and crust comes from the world ocean's saline seawater, while freshwater accounts for only 2.5% of the total. 2.India is facing a fresh water crisis. India has just 4% of the world s fresh water but 16% of the global population. Q41) Which one of the following is the correct sequence in terms of languages by number of native speakers in India? a) Hindi>Marathi>Bengali>Kannada b) Bengali>Hindi>Marathi>Telugu c) Hindi>Bengali>Marathi>Kannada d) Hindi>Bengali>Malayalam>Telugu Q42) Consider the following related to Natural gas hydrates, 1.Natural gas hydrates are a naturally occurring, ice-like combination of natural gas and water found in oceans and polar regions. 2. Natural gas hydrates are considered as vast resources of natural gas and are known to occur in marine sediments on continental shelf margins. 3.Samudra Ratnakar - Indian Oceanographic Research Vessel has the capability to explore and identify the favourable zone of accumulation of Gas Hydrates, which are known to be the future source of hydro-carbon energy. Which of the statements given above are correct? a)1 and 2 only b)1 and 3 only c)2 and 3 only d)1,2 and 3 Q43) The western coast of India is suitable for ports compared to eastern coast because a) Western Coast is broken and indented. b) Western Coast receives heavy rainfall. c) Eastern Coast is formed by fine alluvial soil. d) The large rivers make wide deltas on the Eastern Coastal Plains. Q44) Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal? 1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use. 2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country. 3. Steel companies need large quantity of cooking coal which has to be imported. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 5

6 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 Q45. Consider the following statements related to Hydro carbon Exploration policy in India 1.Uniform license for exploration and production of all forms of hydrocarbon. 2.Revenue sharing model will be replaced by a easy to administer Production sharing model. 3.Open Acreage Policy will enable companies choose the blocks from the designated area. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 Q46. Match List I (Ethnic Community) with List II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Ethnic community) (Country) A. Apatani 1. China B. Balochi 2. India C. Rohingya 3. Pakistan D. Uighur 4. Myanmar Codes: A B C D a) b) c) d) Q47) consider the following statements: 1.The main diamond bearing areas in India are the Panna belt in Madhya Pradesh 2. Mannargudi of Tamil Nadu is known for its manganese deposits. Which of the above statements is/are not correct? Q48) What are the major problems of Textile industry in India? 1. Lack of Plant and machinery technology. 2. Competition from the man-made fabrics and synthetics. 3. Severe competition from developing countries like Bangladesh, Vietnam and Indonesia. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 Q49) Consider the following statements related to Steel industry in India 1. A major steel producer, China, due to weakening global demand but over capacity of its steel industry is dumping steel in Indian markets, which reduces the demand for domestic steel. 2. Technological inefficiency and per capita labour productivity has reduced the competitiveness of India steel industry. Q50) What is the approximate % of age group in India's current population? a)55 b)44 c)65 d)75 Q51) Consider the following statements. 1. The Speaker shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. 2. All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q52) The electoral college of Vice President consists of: 1. The elected members of both the Houses of Parliament. 2. The nominated members of both the houses. 3. The elected members of the State Legislature. b) 1 and 2 only Q53) Consider the following statements about Joint session of parliament. 1. The president can summon the joint session. 2. The president act as presiding officer of the joint session. 3. Constitution cannot be amended by calling joint session. Which of the above statements are true? b) 1 and 3 only d) 1,2 and 3 Q54) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the role of speaker in Lok Sabha? 1. He is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of India within the house. 2. He decides whether a bill is a money bill or not. 3. He acts as the ex-officio chairman of the Indian Parliamentary Group of the Inter-Parliamentary Union. 6

7 a) Only 2 and 3 c) Only 1 and 3 Q55) The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is: a) Zero Hour b) Question Hour c) Discussion Hour of the above Q56) Consider the following statements. 1. The word 'Budget' is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution. 2. Art. 112 of the Constitution deals with the Budget. Which of the following statements is/are correct? a)1 only 1 and 2 of the above Q57) Consider the following statements: 1. Policy cut motion -The amount of the demand be reduced by Rs Economy cut motion -The amount of demand be reduced by specific amount 3. Token cut motion - The amount of the demand be reduced to Re 1. Which of the above is/are correctly matched? Q58) Which of the following are associated with Consolidated Fund of India: 1. All revenues received by the Government of India. 2. All loans raised by the Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means of advances 3. Provident Fund Deposits 4. Judicial Deposits b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only Q59) What are the special powers of Rajya Sabha: 1. Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills. 2. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the Union Public Service Commission. 3. In creation of new All-India Services common to both the Centre and states 4. To make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only Q60) Consider the following statements about public accounts committee: 1. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. 2. Rajya Sabha has no representation in the committee. 3. It is the largest committee in terms of number of members. 4. The members are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. a) 2 and 4 only b) 1 and 4 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only Q61) Which of the following does not come under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? 1. A dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument. 2. between two or more states. 3. Inter-state water disputes. 4. Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and the states. a) 2 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 4 only Q62) Consider the following statements. 1. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. 2. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 3. Before a Minister enters upon his office, the Chief Justice of India shall administer to him the oaths of office. b) 1 and 2 only Q63) Consider the following statements about Attorney General of India: 1. The President shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of the High Court to be Attorney-General for India. 2. He can be a member of parliamentary committee. 3. He can take part in the proceedings of the House like any other member. 4. He cannot vote. Which of the following statements is/are true? a) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only Q64) Consider the following statements: 7

8 1. The chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 65 years. 2. The chairman and members of the Commission can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing their resignation to the president. Which of the above is/ are true? 1 and 2 of the above Q65) Match the following: 1. Allocation of Rajya Sabha Seats a. 2nd Schedule 2. Languages b. 4th Schedule 3. Forms of Oaths and Affirmations c. 3rd Schedule 4. Salaries of President d. 8th Schedule a) 1-d, 2 -b, 3-a, 4-c b) 1-b, 2 d, 3-c, 4- a c) 1-d, 2 -b,3-c, 4- a d) 1-b,2 d,3-a, 4-c Q66) Consider the following statements about governor: 1. All executive actions of the government of a state are taken in his name. 2. He can appoint and remove the chairman and members of the state public service commission. 3. He can summon or prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the state legislative assembly. 4. He decides on the question of disqualification of members of the state legislature in the cases involving anti-defection. a) 1 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only Q67) Consider the following statements: 1. Both President and Governor can pardon, reprieve, respite, remit, suspend or commute the punishment or sentence. 2. While the President can pardon death penalty, governor cannot pardon death penalty. 3. While the President can grant pardon, reprieve, respite, suspension, remission or commutation in respect to punishment or sentence by a court-martial, governor cannot. Which of the above is/ are true? Q68) Consider the following statements: 1. Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President. 2. Recommendation for the imposition of the President s Rule in the state. 3. While exercising his functions as the administrator of an adjoining union territory (in case of additional charge). Which of the above is/are constitutional discretion powers of Governor? b) 1 and 2 only Q69) Consider the following statements: 1. The judges of a high court are appointed by governor. 2. A person appointed as a judge of a high court, before entering upon his office, has to make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the governor. 3. The governor can appoint and remove the members of state public service commission. 4. The same person can be appointed as governor for two or more states. a) 4 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 3 only Q70) Which of them are correctly matched? 1. Art. 371 A - Nagaland 2. Art. 371 C - Manipur 3. Art. 371 F - Sikkim 4. Art. 371 G - Mizoram b) 2 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only Q71) The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that a) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated b) Fundamental rights cannot be abridged or taken away c) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Art. 368 d) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not part of the Constitution and at the same time represents its real spirit Q72) In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government? 1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament. 2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament. 3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. b) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Q73) CAG audits the accounts related to all expenditure from: 1. The Consolidated Fund of India 2. Consolidated fund of each state 8

9 3. Consolidated fund of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly. b) 1 and 3 only Q74) Which one of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker is correct? 1. He holds office during the pleasure of the President 2. He need not be a member of the House at the time of his election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his election. 3. He loses his office if the House is dissolved before the end of its normal tenure. 4. If he intends to resign, the letter of his resignation is to be addressed to the President. b) 3 only c) 1,2 and 3 Q75) Consider the following statements about CAG of India: 1. He audits all transactions of the Central and state governments related to debt, sinking funds, Deposits, advances, suspense accounts and remittance business. 2. He advises the Parliament with regard to prescription of the form in which the accounts of the Centre and the states shall be kept. 3. He submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to Parliament. b) 1 and 2 only Q76) Which of the following are Constitutional bodies? 1. Advocate General 2. Solicitor General 3. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities 4. National Human Rights Commission a) 1 and 4 only b) 1 and 3only c) 1, 3 and 4 only Q77) Which of the following statements about National Human Rights Commission is/are true? 1. The chairman should be a retired or serving judge of the Supreme Court of India. 2. Members should be serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court or High court. 1 and 2 of the above Q78) Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The chief election commissioner is appointed by the president and holds his office during the pleasure of the president. 2. The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission. 3. The Constitution has debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government. c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 3 Q79) Consider the following statements about Constitution amendment bill. 1. The bill can be introduced by a minister and not by a private member. 2. The Bill does not require prior permission of the president. 3. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses of the Parliament, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill. 4. The President can return the bill once, but if it is resent to the president's approval with or without modifications, the president has to sign the bill. Which of the above statement is/are correct? c) 1,2 and 4 only Q80) Which of the following can be amended by simple majority of Parliament? 1. Second Schedule 2. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures. 3. Election of the President and its manner. 4. Fifth Schedule 5. Seventh Schedule a) 1, 4 and 5 only c) 1,2 and 4 only Q81) Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions. 2. When the President s rule is imposed in a state, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to that state. 3. The Parliament acquires the power to legislate with respect to matters in the State List, while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation. b) 1 and 3 only 9

10 Q82) Consider the following statements: 1. During the operation of a national emergency (under Article 352), the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on any matter. 2. When the President s Rule is imposed in a state (under Article 356), the President can assume to himself the functions of the state government and powers vested in the Governor or any other executive authority in the state. 3. During the operation of a financial emergency (under Article 360), the Centre can direct the states to observe canons of financial propriety and the President can give other necessary directions including the reduction of salaries of persons serving in the state and the high court judges. Q83) Which of the following states are party to the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal? 1. Karnataka 2. Maharashtra 3. Tamil Nadu 4. Goa 5. Puducherry 6. Kerala a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 1,2, 3 and 5 c) 1,3, 4 and 6 d) 1, 3, 5 and 6 Q84) On what grounds, the President can declare a national emergency under Art. 352? 1. External Aggression 2. Internal Disturbance 3. Armed rebellion Q85) Consider the following statements: 1. When a proclamation of national emergency is made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended. 2. During a national emergency, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the State List. 1 and 2 of the above Q86) With reference to the provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act consider the following statements: 1. In the Scheduled areas, at least one-half of the seats in every panchayat are reserved for members of the scheduled tribes. 2. The Gram Sabha shall be responsible for Planning and management of minor water bodies in the Scheduled Areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2 Q87) Consider the following statements about scheduled areas under the fifth schedule: 1. The President is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. 2. The President can increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines in consultation with the governor of the state concerned. 3. The governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of Parliament or the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. Q88) Who is the highest law officer in the county? a) Law Minister b) The President c) Chief Justice of India d) Attorney General Q89) The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the a) Consolidated Fund of India b) Consolidated Fund of the State c) Contingency Fund of India d) Contingency Fund of the State Q90) Consider the following statements about Governor: 1. Governor holds office during the pleasure of the president. 2. He acts as the chancellor of universities in the state. 3. He tenders his resignation to the chief minister of the state. Q91) Which of the following subject matters are involved in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution? 1. Agriculture, including agricultural extension 2. Fisheries 3. Social forestry and farm forestry 4. Public distribution system b) 1, 2 and 3 only 10

11 c) 1, 3 and 4 only Q92) Which of the following are compulsory provisions the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992)? 1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats. 1 and 2 of the above Q93) Consider the following statements about Contingency Fund of India. 1. This fund is placed at the disposal of the Prime Minister, and he can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure pending its authorisation by the Parliament. 2. The fund is held by the finance secretary on behalf of the Prime Minister. 1 and 2 of the above Q94) Consider the following statements: 1. The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. 2. The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. 1 and 2 Q95) Consider the following statements about UPSC: 1. It conducts examinations for appointments to the all- India services, Central services and public services of the centrally administered territories. 2. It is concerned with the classification of services, pay and service conditions, cadre management, training etc. 3. The role of UPSC is limited and recommendations made by it are only of advisory in nature and hence, not binding on the government. Which of the above functions is/are performed by UPSC? b) 1 and 3 only Q96) Consider the following statements about Finance Commission: 1. It recommends the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds. 2. It recommends the principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the consolidated fund of India). 3. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. Which of the above statements is/ are correct? Q97) The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following? 1. Constitution of District Planning Committees. 2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections. 3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: ( (b) 1 and 2 only ( (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q98) Who among the following is the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee, the Rules Committee and the General Purpose Committee of Lok Sabha? a) A member elected by the Lok Sabha b) A member nominated by the Speaker c) Speaker d) A member nominated by the President Q99) Consider the following statements about Estimates Committee: 1. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. 2. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee. 1 and 2 Q100) Consider the following statements: 1. Cabinet Committees are not mentioned in the constitution. 2. Cabinet Committee on Accommodation is chaired by the Home Minister of India. 3. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. 4. Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. Which of the above is / are correct? b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only 11