1. The lines of distinction between managers and non-managerial employees are no longer as clear as they used to be. Today, we can define managers as:

Transcription

1 Chapter-1: Introduction to Management Self Assessment Questions 1. The lines of distinction between managers and non-managerial employees are no longer as clear as they used to be. Today, we can define managers as: a. An organization member who works directly on a job or task and has no one reporting to them. b. A manager is someone who works with and through other people by coordinating their work activities in order to accomplish organization goals. c. Someone for whom personal success is most important. d. Someone who works with strategic planning at the top of the organization. 2. In a traditionally structured organization that resembles a pyramid, those who are responsible for making organization wide plans and decisions are: a. Top managers, such as the president or chairman of the board. b. First-line managers, who work directly with those who create the product. c. Middle managers such as division or regional managers or team leaders. d. Employees directly responsible for creating the product or service. 3. Early in the 20th Century Henri Fayol, a French industrialist, first analyzed what managers do and divided that work into functions. The study of the management function that defines goals and establishes strategies to achieve them is a. planning. b. Organizing c. Leading d. Controlling 4. Henry Mintzberg studied the roles managers play at work, or how managers are expected to behave. A manager explaining a company policy to a new employee would be acting in a(n) role. a. decisional b. interpersonal c. planning d. informational 5. Research by Robert Katz found that managers need three skills: technical, human, and conceptual. For a supervisor teaching an employee to use a piece of equipment safely, the most important of these skills would be

2 a. Conceptual skills b. Human skills. c. Strategic skills. d. Technical skills 6. An organization has a distinct purpose and goals, is composed of people, and. a. Has some deliberate structure so people can perform their work. b. Money with which to pay them. All organizations have some deliberate structure so people can perform their work. c. Has a building in which to meet. d. Are incorporated. 7. The principle that states that management is needed in all types and sizes of organizations, at all organizational levels, and in all countries is known as a. The universality of management. b. Fayol's managerial functions c. Katz's theory of managerial skills d. Mintzberg's theory of managerial roles. 8. Creating a customer responsive organization a. Depends on top management's attitudes. b. Depends on the attitudes of line supervisors. c. Depends on the attitudes and behaviors of all employees. d. Is only important to service businesses. 9. The rate of change and level of competition today require that employees and managers at all levels look for new and creative ways to improve products and services. This requires an organization to a. Encourage risk and innovation. b. Be sure they are correct before they try something new. c. Always ask before trying something new. d. Keep doing what has worked in the past. 10. A good reason to study management is that a. It is a tough and thankless job b. There is an oversupply of managers.

3 c. When you hold a job, you will have a better understanding of the management process that forms the foundation for building your management skills. d. Working with a variety of difficult personalities makes it impossible to get things done. 11. Women are well-represented at all lower and middle levels of management, but not at the top. a. True b. False 12. According to a Gallup Organization study, the single most important variable in employee productivity is pay. a. True b. False 13. First line managers with titles such as shift or department mangers are also known as supervisors. a. True b. False 14. Effectiveness is getting the most outputs from the least amount of inputs. a. True b. False 15. When managers organize, they motivate subordinates to achieve the organization's goals. a. True b. False 16. Evaluating employee performance against the standard of a previously set goal is controlling. a. True b. False 17. Interpersonal roles involve ceremonial and symbolic duties within the organization. a. True b. False 18. Henry Mintzberg's research on managerial roles proved Henri Fayol's functional approach to be incorrect.

4 a. True b. False 19. Human skills are equally important at all levels of the organization. a. True b. False 20. Innovation the use of high tech solutions to solve problems. a. True b. False Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (b) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(d) 5.(d) 6.(a) 7.(a) 8.(c) 9.(a) 10.(c) 11(a) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(b) 16.(a) 17.(b) 18.(b) 19.(a) 20.(b)

5 Chapter-2: Planning, Decision Making and Organizing Self Assessment Questions 1. Which of the factors listed below is not a reason for decision making in organizations being a complex process? a. People have to make decisions in a historical context b. Factors in the current context of the organization affect the decision c. Several stakeholders will have an interest in the decision d. Modern information systems enable people to evaluate a range of possible outcomes 2. The overall process of decision making in, for example, staff selection includes which of these stages? a. Deciding which candidate to appoint b. Identifying the need for a new member of staff c. Agreeing the job specification d. All of the above 3. A manager who is helping a customer return some shoes they purchased last week is dealing with what type of decision? a. Bounded rationality b. Non-programmed decision c. Uncertainty d. Programmed decision 4. A solution to a problem that is arrived at through an unstructured process of decision making is called a: a. Uncertainty b. Bounded rationality c. Non-programmed decision d. Programmed decision 5. As a manager moves to higher positions in an organisation the ability to make becomes important. a. Programmed; much more b. Programmed; more c. Non-programmed; less

6 d. Non-programmed; more 6. Decision making situations can be categorized along a scale which ranges from: a. Uncertainty to certainty to risk b. Certainty to risk to uncertainty to ambiguity c. Certainty to uncertainty to risk d. Certainty to risk to uncertainty 7. When a manager knows little about the intended goals of a decision and the outcomes of the options are unclear, what type of situation are they in? a. Uncertainty b. Risk c. Certainty d. Ambiguity 8. If a manager at Wipro wants to award a contract for printing the company's promotional literature and has obtained quotations from several printers, the manager can select a printer and know with what the printing should cost. a. Uncertainty b. Risk c. Certainty d. Ambiguity 9. In Herbert Simon's theory, a manager who accepts the first satisfactory solution to a problem has made a decision, while a manager who continues to search for the best possible solution is seeking to find a decision a. Maximizing; minimizing b. Maximizing; satisfying c. Satisfying; maximizing d. Minimizing; maximizing 10. The decision making model which emphasizes that organizations contain diverse interest groups who will bargain about goals and alternative actions, often with incomplete information is known as the: a. Political model b. Inspirational or garbage can model c. Administrative or incremental model d. Computational or rational model

7 11. The process of setting goals and choosing the means by which these goals will be achieved is known as: a. Controlling b. Leading c. Organising d. Planning 12. According to Alfred Chandler, 'determining the basic long-term goals and objectives of an enterprise, and the adoption of courses of action and the allocation of resources necessary for carrying out these goals' is known as: a. Portfolio management b. The operational level of a plan c. Enterprise d. Strategy 13. What type of strategy is attempting to answer the question: 'What products should we in the soft drinks area of our company offer to our customers?' a. Strategic business unit b. Functional c. Corporate d. Production 14. An established set of decisions to deal with specific activities which recur frequently within the organisation is known as: a. An operational plan b. A standing plan c. A single-use plan d. A strategic plan 15. According to research by Delmar and Shane, planning benefits new ventures in several ways. Which of the following is not one of these benefits? a. Planning facilitates venture-organising in new ventures b. Planning reduces the benefits of a venture disbanding c. Planning facilitates product development d. Planning enables managers to predict the future 16. Which of the following statements best expresses the meaning of 'real goals'? a. Real goals express what the organisation says that it intends to do

8 b. Real goals are those which, if achieved, would most enhance the reputation of the organization c. Real goals are those which the organisation has achieved d. Real goals are those to which people give most attention 17. According to goal-setting theory, which one of the following is not a motivating feature of goals? a. Participation in setting goals b. Challenging goals c. Knowledge of results of past performance d. Keeping goals vague 18. IKEA's plan for developing a greater presence in Japan is an example of: a. Responding to the environment b. A hierarchy of objectives c. A strategic plan d. None of the above 19. Research by Andersen has shown that: a. Planning takes too much time and effort to be worthwhile b. Planning helps managers avoid uncertainty c. Companies which plan perform better than those which do not d. Planning makes little difference to company performance 20. Which one of the following is not listed in the SMART acronym for assessing a set of goals? a. Rewarded b. Specific c. Measurable d. Adjustable Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (d) 2.(d) 3.(d) 4.(c) 5.(d) 6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10.(a) 11(d) 12.(d) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(d) 16.(d) 17.(d) 18.(b) 19.(c) 20.(d)

9 Chapter-3: Leading Self Assessment Questions 1. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the meaning of the psychological contract? a. A situation in which employees are satisfied with the pay and benefits they receive b. A formal statement of working conditions and the mutual obligations of employer and employee c. The set of mutual understandings which people have regarding the commitments between themselves and their organization d. What the employer expects of employees 2. Research into behavior modification theory has identified several practices which are claimed to improve performance in predictable ways. One of the following is not one of these practices - which is it? a. Reinforcement is more effective than punishment b. Desirable behavior is not likely to be repeated if reinforced by rewards c. Benefits must be given as soon as possible after the behavior d. Benefits must be given only when the desired behavior occurs 3. According to Alderfer, a person's need for personal creativity or productive influence is called: a. A relatedness need b. An existence need c. A growth need d. A behavior modification need 4. Which of the following propositions is not associated with goal-setting theory? a. Challenging goals lead to higher levels of performance b. Specific goals lead to higher performance than vague goals c. Knowledge of the results of past performance has little effect on behavior d. Participation in goal setting can improve commitment 5. According to Frederick Herzberg, which of the following is not a job enrichment technique? a. Introducing new tasks b. Increasing the salary of workers c. Creating natural work groups

10 d. Removing controls over workers 6. In Douglas McGregor's view, managers assume that people have an inherent dislike of work, while managers assume that work is as natural as play. a. Theory X; Theory Y b. Theory Z; Theory X c. Theory Y; Theory Z d. Theory Y; Theory X 7. The idea that workers look for meaning in their work and will actively seek out new responsibilities is most consistent with which of these needs identified by Maslow? a. Physiological b. Safety c. Social d. Self-actualisation 8. According to the expectancy model of motivation, a salesperson who expects a bonus if he performs above his sales quota is dealing with: a. Valence b. Avoidance learning c. Effort-performance expectancy d. Performance-outcome expectancy 9. The equity theory of motivation bases its explanations of behavior on perceptions of: a. Social comparisons b. Morality c. Value d. Human differences 10. In motivation theory, the Job Characteristics Model defines three critical psychological states. Two of these are 'experienced meaningfulness' and 'experienced responsibility'. The third is: a. Good working relations with colleagues b. Job satisfaction c. Knowledge of results d. Expectancy motivation 11. According to your text, leaders are people who:

11 a. are able to exert non-coercive influence over the actions of followers, towards achievement of certain goals or objectives. b. have a great deal of self-confidence. c. are managers. d. none of the above. 12. The functional approach to the study of leadership focuses on: a. whether leaders have special personal characteristics. b. whether there is a most appropriate style of behavior for leaders to adopt. c. explaining leadership in terms of the functions performed with respect to followers. d. explaining leadership in terms of the functions performed with respect to the organisation. 13. Which of the following is a function performed by an effective leader according to the Action Centred Leadership model? a. A task-related function. b. A team-maintenance function. c. An individually-oriented function. d. All of the above. 14. Which of the following is NOT true of a manager? a. He/she has authority conferred from above. b. He/she is usually responsible for a degree of planning, organizing and controlling. c. He/she automatically occupies a position of leadership. d. All of the above. 15. According to trait theories of leadership, people are leaders because they: a. have learned through experience how to lead others. b. are manipulative. c. have been trained to lead people. d. are born with leadership abilities. 16. The two dimensions of leader behavior described by the Ohio State studies are: a. autocratic and democratic. b. boss-centred and employee-centred. c. initiating structure and consideration. d. laissez-faire and decisiveness. 17. The two dimensions of leader behavior described by the Michigan leadership studies are:

12 a. autocratic and democratic. b. production-centred and employee-centred. c. initiating structure and consideration. d. laissez-faire and decisiveness. 18. Which of the following styles is described on the Blake and McCanse managerial grid as impoverished management? a. 9 : 1 b. 5 : 5 c. 9 : 9 d. 1 : Which of the following styles is described on the Blake and McCanse managerial grid as team management? a. 9 : 1 b. 5 : 5 c. 9 : 9 d. 1 : The two extremes of leadership style portrayed by the Tannenbaum and Schmidt model of leadership are: a. initiating structure and consideration. b. production-centred and employee-centred. c. boss-centred and follower-centred. d. autocratic and participative. Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (c) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(c) 5.(b) 6.(a) 7.(d) 8.(d) 9.(a) 10.(c) 11(a) 12.(c) 13.(d) 14.(c) 15.(d) 16.(c) 17.(b) 18.(d) 19.(c) 20.(c)

13 Chapter-4: Management Concepts and Applications Self Assessment Questions 1. The obligation of a business to meet its economic and legal responsibilities is: a. Referred to as social obligation. b. Consistent with the socioeconomic view of social responsibility. c. Referred to as social responsiveness. d. Referred to as social responsibility. 2. Which view of ethics has the goal to provide the greatest good for the greatest number? a. Rights view of ethics. b. Utilitarian view of ethics. c. Freedom of conscience view. d. Theory of justice view of ethics. 3. People with an internal locus of control are likely to: a. Attribute various outcomes to luck or chance. b. Avoid taking responsibility for the consequences of their actions. c. Demonstrate very little consistency between their moral judgements and moral actions. d. Take responsibility for the consequences of their actions and rely on their own internal standards of right and wrong to guide their behaviour. 4. An organisational culture is most likely to shape high ethical standards if it is: a. A weak culture. b. A culture that is high in risk tolerance, control and conflict tolerance. c. A culture with a strong outcome-orientation. d. A culture that is low in risk tolerance, control and conflict tolerance. 5. Which of the following factors does not influence issue intensity? a. Proximity to victim. b. Probability of harm. c. The individual's locus of control. d. Concentration of effect. 6. Which of the following is not an argument for social responsibility? a. Lack of accountability.

14 b. Ethical obligation. c. Possession of resources. d. Balance of responsibility and power. 7. The word control in an organizational context has traditionally been used interchangeably with. a. financial control b. Managerial Ethics c. Ethical Dilemma d. None of these 8. Public expectations, shareholders interests, a better environment and ethical obligations are all arguments for: a. Businesses responding to shareholders by maximizing profit. b. The socio-economic view of businesses being socially responsible. c. Businesses not assuming social responsibility. d. The classical view of businesses being socially responsible. 9. Stage three in the continuum of social responsibility is: a. Constituents in the specific environment. b. Employees. c. Broader society. d. Owners and management. 10. Integrative social contracts theory is a view in which decisions are made on the basis of: a. Empirical and normative factors. b. Respecting rights of individuals. c. Enforcing rules fairly and impartially. d. Outcomes or sequences. 11. The hand-of-government refers to the a. ability of the government to interfere in business negotiations b. role of corporations to be profitable within the law c. effect of national politics on business decisions d. impact of changing government regulations 12. An organization s obligation to act to protect and improve society's welfare as well as its own interests is referred to as

15 a. organisational social responsibility b. organisational social responsiveness c. corporate obligation d. business ethics 13. The view that business exists at society's pleasure and businesses should meet public expectations of social responsibility is the a. iron law of responsibility argument b. enlightened self-interest argument c. capacity argument d. anti-freeloader argument 14. Managerial ethics can be characterized by all of the following levels except a. immoral management b. amoral management c. demoral management d. moral management 15. The development of organisational decision processes where managers anticipate, respond to, and manage areas of social responsibility is a. organisational social responsibility b. organisational social obligations c. organisational social responsiveness d. organisational social welfare 16. The social demands and expectations of organisations can be assessed by all of the following except a. social planning b. social forecasting c. social scanning d. social audits 17. Management's social responsibilities include all of the following except a. economic b. caretaker c. legal d. ethical 18. Which of the following does not contribute to the development of a manager's standard of ethics?

16 a. competitor behaviors b. society's norms and values c. individual life experiences d. environmental situations 19. A document prepared to guide organisation members when encountering ethical dilemmas is a(n) a. code of conduct b. list of rules and responsibilities c. code of ethics d. outline of expected behaviors 20. Corporate contributions for charitable and social responsibility purposes is called a. corporate philanthropy b. corporate charities c. corporate donations d. corporate discretionaries Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (a) 2.(b) 3.(d) 4.(b) 5.(c) 6.(a) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(a) 11(b) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(c) 15.(c) 16.(a) 17.(b) 18.(a) 19.(c) 20.(a)

17 Chapter-5: Organizing Self Assessment Questions 1. Organizing is the process of defining and grouping the activities of the enterprise and establishing the relationships among them. a. Authority b. Planning c. Managerial d. None of these 2. An organization is a mechanism through which. directs co-ordinates and controls the business. a. Management b. Financial c. Enterprise d. All of these 3. Organizing is the process of establishing harmonious authority-responsibility relationships among the members of the. a. Enterprise b. Company c. management d. None of these 4. Span of.. is also called the span of control, span of authority, span of supervision and span of responsibility. a. financial b. company c. management d. None of these 5. Responsibility is the duty of the person to complete the task assigned to him.

18 a. Responsibility b. Authority c. Accountability d. All of these 6. Which approach recognizes that there is no optimal organizational design? a. Contingency b. Boundless organizations c. Flexible organizations d. Virtual organizations 7. According to Burns and Stalker, which of the following is a feature of organic organizations? a. A specific hierarchical structure b. Prestige drawn from personal contribution c. Emphasis on vertical communication channels d. Knowledge requirement based on job 8. How did Lawrence and Lorsch refer to problems of trying to cope with varied environmental demands from the same department or the same demands from different departments? a. Integration failure b. Differentiation errors c. Insufficient collaboration d. Cognitive and emotional conflict 9. Which key skill was not mentioned by Kanter as needed by managers of innovative organizations? a. Communicating b. Team leading c. Political d. Coping 10. Which of the following is not true of span of control? a. The technical content of jobs has little effect on the required span of control of supervisors. b. High spans of control were found in supervision of line production. c. It is the number of subordinates who report directly to a supervisor

19 d. The average span of control affects the number of managers. 11. Organizational structure is made up of key elements. Which of the following is not one of these elements? a. co-ordination b. chain of command c. decentralization d. centralization 12. When jobs are grouped together based on a particular type of customer, this is known as: a. centralization. b. departmentalization. c. work specialization. d. job structuring. 13. Centralization refers to: a. the decision-making process. b. team decision-making. c. the geographic dispersion of an organization. d. the degree to which decision-making is concentrated at a single point in the organization. 14. In an organization that has high centralization: a. all top-level officials are located within the same geographic area. b. problems can be quickly and efficiently solved. c. decision discretion is widely dispersed throughout the organization. d. top managers make all the decisions-lower-level managers merely carry out directions. 15. The degree to which jobs within an organization are standardized is referred to as: a. centralization. b. job variation. c. job classification. d. formalization.

20 16. How did Woodward come to suggest a normative theory about production organization? a. Because different groups of firms had different organizational characteristics. b. Because those with leaner, shorter hierarchies performed best. c. Because the best-performing firms in each technological group had organizational characteristics that were similar to each other. d. Because it became clear that firms should adapt their organization to match process technology. 17. Structure is the pattern of relationships among positions in the organization and among members of the organization. Which of the following does structure make possible? a. The planning, organizing, directing and controlling of the activities of the organization. b. The application of the process of management. c. The creation of a framework of order and command. d. All of the above. 18. Which of the following functions may be described as 'task' functions? a. Production. b. Quality control. c. Personnel. d. All of the above. 19. Which of the following might be classified as functions of the staff organization as opposed to functions of the line organization? a. Computer support services. b. Public relations. c. Personnel. d. All of the above. 20. Which three of the following terms best describe the three levels in a hierarchical structure? a. Missionary level. b. Co-ordination level, Objective level. c. Technical level, Community level. d. Managerial level, Community level, Technical level. Answers for Self Assessment Questions

21 1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(c) 5.(a) 6. (a) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(a) 11. (a) 12.(c) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15.(d) 16. (c) 17.(d) 18.(a) 19.(d) 20.(d)

22 Chapter-6: Organizational Behavior Self Assessment Questions 1. Organizational Behavior (OB) is a term related to the study of individual and group dynamics in an.. setting, as well as the nature of the organizations themselves. a. organizational b. company c. management d. None of these 2. is commonly defined as Getting work done through other people. a. Management b. Organization c. Financial d. All of these 3... such as machines and work processes provide the resources with which people work and affects the tasks that they perform. a. Organization b. Structure c. Technology d. None of these 4. Specific procedures developed for repetitive and routine problems are a. autocratic decisions b. programmed decisions c. easy decisions d. non-programmed decisions 5. An important potential environmental source of change is

23 a. a new competitive product b. dissatisfied employee attitudes c. employee grievances d. a wildcat strike 6. Which of the following issues is most central to the field of organizational behavior? (a) ways to improve advertising for a new product (b) ways to increase job satisfaction and performance among employees (c) creation of new strategy for organizational growth (d) design of a new management information system 7. Shared organizational values are a. unconscious, affective desires or wants that guide society's behavior b. influenced by international values c. different for the various components of a diverse work force d. a myth 8. Which of the following best explains why an employee behaves as s/he does? a. The environment is the most important consideration in understanding individual employee behavior. b. Both the environment and individual differences are important considerations in understanding individual employee behavior. c. Neither the environment nor individual differences are important considerations in understanding individual employee behavior. d. Employee personality and attitudes are primarily dictated by the environment. 9. What is the best description of the setting facing organizational behavior today? (a) Command-and-control is in.

24 (b) The new generation expects much the same as the old. (c) Empowerment is out. (d) Work life balance concerns are in. 10. Which statement about OB is most correct? (a) OB seeks one-best-way solutions to management problems. (b) OB is a unique science that has little relationship to other scientific disciplines. (c) OB is focused on using knowledge for practical applications. (d) OB is so modern that it has no historical roots. 11. Organization structures a. affect group behavior more than individual behavior b. change rapidly to meet environmental and market changes c. contribute positively to organizational performance d. can be defined simply as activities that occur regularly 12. The term workforce diversity refers to differences in race, age, gender, ethnicity, and among people at work. (a) social status (b) personal wealth (c) able-bodiedness (d) political preference 13. In the open-systems view of organizations, such things as technology, information, and money are considered. (a) transformation elements (b) feedback (c) inputs (d) outputs

25 14. Which of the following is true of managers in relationship to conflict? a. Managers generally encourage low levels of conflict because it improves performance, up to a certain point. b. Managers generally ignore conflict. c. Managers attempt to eliminate conflict because the organization rewards them for keeping conflict out of their area of responsibility. d. Managers show no consistent attitude toward conflict. 15. It appears that a. successful leaders tend to be more intelligent than followers b. there is no link between intelligence of the leader and success c. intelligence is the most important "ability" trait in leaders d. persons with creativity make the best leaders 16. A person with high emotional intelligence would be strong in, the ability to think before acting and to control disruptive impulses. (a) motivation (b) perseverance (c) self-regulation (d) empathy 17. Which statement about learning is not correct? (a) Learning is a change in behavior that results from experience. (b) People learn; organizations do not. (c) Experiential learning is common in OB courses. (d) Lifelong learning is an important personal responsibility for career development. 18. Employees with relatively weak higher-order needs are concerned with variety and autonomy. a. less

26 b. more c. very d. extremely 19. Which of the following is a strategy of job design that increases job depth by meeting employees needs for psychological growth? a. Job rotation b. Job enrichment c. Job enlargement d. Job enrichment and job enlargement 20. What is the key word in understanding organization structure? a. Control b. Change c. Process d. Delegation Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(c) 4.(b) 5.(a) 6.(b) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(d) 10.(c) 11(d) 12.(c) 13.(c) 14.(c) 15.(a) 16.(c) 17.(b) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20.(a)

27 Chapter-7: Group Dynamics and Team Development Self Assessment Questions 1. Changes in behavior as a result of observation and manipulation of conditions in an environment are termed: a. the Hawthorne effect. b. group dynamics. c. social influence. d. sociometry. 2. Members within a group that share similar experiences and feelings are known to have: a. process. b. universality. c. content. d. conflict. 3. An important factor of the preplanning stage in group dynamics is determining what the group is to accomplish; this is known as. a. goal setting. b. cohesion. c. clarity of purpose. d. group orientation. 4. groups have members who have similar presenting problems or are similar in gender, ethnicity, or social background. a. Heterogeneous b. Ideal c. Dynamic d. Homogeneous 5. Role is a conflict between the role an individual has outside the group and the role he or she is expected to have in the group. a. collision b. transition c. confusion d. incompatibility

28 6. Activities that help members understand how they reacted to situations in the past and discuss how to learn and relate better in the future are known as: a. simulation games. b. awareness. c. icebreakers. d. processing. 7. Yalom's curative factors within a group often affect the interactions of members and the group as a whole in complex ways. As members begin experiencing and expressing feelings, Yalom would assert that is the curative factor. a. catharsis b. altruism c. interpersonal learning d. existential factor 8. In Glass and Benshoff's (1999) PARS model, which conceptualizes "processing" in group work, PARS is an acronym in which "S" stands for: a. system. b. sociometry. c. subgrouping. d. self. 9. In setting up a group structure, has a strong influence on how a group operates. a. membership b. group setting c. physical structure d. group content 10. Which role in a group setting contributes to the social-emotional bonding of members and the group's overall success? a. facilitative/building role b. individualizing c. maintenance d. blocking 11. The stages of group development are: a. introduction, high productivity, decline. b. initiating, storming, norming, performing, adjourning.

29 c. initiation, evolution, maturation, and decline. d. forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning. 12. In the second stage of group development: a. the group demonstrates cohesiveness. b. close relationships are developed. c. the job task is performed. d. intragroup conflict often occurs. 13. After which stage of a group s development has the group formed a common set of expectations of member behaviours? a. performing b. norming c. storming d. forming 14. According to the punctuated-equilibrium model, all of the following are true about groups except: a. The first meeting sets the group s direction. b. A transition takes place at the end of the first phase which occurs exactly when the group has used up one third of its allotted time. c. The transition initiates major changes. d. The group s last meeting is characterized by markedly accelerated activity. 15. In order to reinforce team effort and commitment, managers should consider the use of: a. fixed hourly wages. b. flexible benefits. c. individual performance evaluations. d. recognition and small financial rewards. 16. Successful teams translate their into specific, measurable, and realistic performance goals. a. knowledge b. common purpose c. norms d. skills 17. is reliability, predictability, and good judgment in handling situations.

30 a. Integrity b. Openness c. Consistency d. Loyalty 18. is a characteristic of high performance teams where members believe in the integrity, character, and ability of each other. a. Worthiness b. Openness c. Trust d. Reliability e. Loyalty 19. All of the following are advantages of diversity except: a. increased creativity. b. greater openness to new ideas. c. multiple perspectives. d. increased cohesiveness. 20. The strongest case for diversity on work teams centres around: a. the fact that miscommunication is unlikely to occur. b. eliminating confusion and miscommunication. c. bringing multiple perspectives to discussion and thus increasing unique solutions. d. the fact that complexity becomes a non-issue since the team is heterogeneous. Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (a) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(a) 6.(d) 7.(a) 8.(d) 9.(c) 10.(c) 11(d) 12.(d) 13.(b) 14.(b) 15.(d) 16.(b) 17.(c) 18.(c) 19.(d) 20.(c)

31 Chapter-8: Leadership Theories and Behavior Self Assessment Questions 1. Some of the research from the 40s to the 60s that looked at what effective leaders actually did a. Was trait theory b. Led to the behavioral theories about autocratic and democratic leaders. c. Was called expectancy theory d. Was called heroic leadership. 2. According to the leadership style studies done by Kurt Lewin at the University of Iowa, a manager who involves employees in decision-making, delegates authority, and uses a coaching style for feedback has a. An authoritative leadership style b. Demonstrates trait theory. c. A laissez-faire leadership style d. A democratic leadership style 3. The Ohio State and U. of Michigan studies looked at similar dimensions of leadership. Managers a. Were autocratic or laissez-faire b. Were either task oriented or people oriented, also called initiating structure or consideration. c. Heroic or situational d. Shared traits such as eye color. 4. The first of the contingency theories of leadership that was based on the premise that different types of situations required leaders to use different styles a. Was Fiedler s theory that effective group performance depended on a proper match between the leader s style and the amount of control the leader has in the situation b. The theory that autocratic managers were useful all of the time if they initiated enough structure. c. Was based on the expectancy theory of motivation and required the leader to help the employee use the best path to the goal. d. Was trait theory 5. The contingency theory that focuses on the followers readiness is a. Trait theory b. Expectancy and Path-goal leadership theory c. Hersey and Blanchard s situational leadership theory.

32 d. Fiedler s contingency theory 6. According to Situational Leadership Theory, the leadership style in which the leader provides both directive and supportive behavior is a. Telling b. Selling c. Delegating d. Participating 7. Vroom and Yetton developed a model to help managers a. Select the right employee to do a job b. Which person should be the manager. c. Choose their least preferred co-worker. d. Decide the level of employee participation to use in decision-making given certain conditions in situations 8. Robert House developed the theory, based on expectancy theory, that a. People will always compare themselves to others and feel that they are being treated unfairly. b. Found that all managers shared several important traits. c. Showed managers a series of styles to select depending on follower readiness. d. Effective leaders are those clarify the path to their work goals and make it easier by reducing roadblocks and pitfalls. 9. A leader who sees workers individual needs, changes awareness of issues, excites and inspires workers to new work goal achievements is a a. Leader who believes in money as the best reward for everyone. b. Transactional leader c. Transformational leader d. Leader who sees all work and rewards as trades. 10. Team leaders need the skills that will help them to accomplish their priorities of a. Achieving team goals regardless of the effect on the competing departments in the organization. b. Managing the team s external boundary and facilitating the team process. c. Managing groupthink so it is helpful. d. Achieving personal success through upward mobility. 11. Coercive power is the same as expert power.

33 a. True b. False 12. Trust is a belief in the integrity, character, and ability of the leader. a. True b. False 13. In a virtual team, it isn t as important to have clear goals and leadership. a. True b. False 14. Empowerment involves increasing the decision-making discretion of workers. a. True b. False 15. The GLOBE research program has found that transformational leadership elements such as trustworthiness and dynamism work in many cultures. a. True b. False 16. The general conclusion of current research is that men and women have the same leadership style regardless of the situation, that is a command and control style. a. True b. False 17. The demise of the heroic leader was brought about by arrogance, greed, hype, and corporate scandals. a. True b. False 18. Leaders are always necessary in work situations. a. True b. False 19. Leadership is the process of influencing a group toward the achievement of goals. a. True b. False

34 20. Trait theories found that leaders share the same physical characteristics. a. True b. False Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (b) 2.(d) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(c) 6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(d) 9.(c) 10.(b) 11(b) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(a) 15.(a) 16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(a) 20.(b)

35 Chapter-9: Interpersonal and Organizational Communication Self Assessment Questions 1. The transfer and understanding of meaning is called: a. channel b. message c. decoding d. communication 2. The four conditions that affect encoded messages are: a. skill, attitudes, values and leadership capabilities. b. ability, language, timing and feedback. c. knowledge, aptitude, timing and feedback. d. skill, attitudes, knowledge and social-cultural system. 3. John writes a memo to his employees. Putting his thoughts onto paper is an example of: a. sourcing. b. feedback. c. encoding. d. decoding. 4. As depicted in the communication process model, the source initiates communication by: a. making contact with the receiver. b. giving feedback to the sender. c. choosing a message. d. making judgments on intent. 5. Undue stress regarding oral and/or written communication is known as: a. communication apprehension. b. reticent apprehension c. noncommunication. d. communication block 6. Which of the following is not a barrier to effective communication? a. filtering b. selective perception

36 c. defensiveness d. channel richness 7. Receivers in the communication process project their interests and expectations into communications as they decode them. This is called: a. selective perception. b. communication apprehension. c. language. d. emotions. 8. When a person manipulates information so that it will be received more favourably, he is: a. using selective perception. b. using vertical communication. c. communicating favorably. d. filtering information. 9. The more levels a message must go through to reach the bottom of the organizational hierarchy, the more likely that: a. filtering will occur. b. written memos will be used. c. subordinates will be discontented. d. the power of managers will be diluted. 10. is used to provide feedback to higher-ups, inform them of progress toward goals, and relay current problems. a. Technical communication b. Upward communication c. Occupational communication d. Directional communication 11. The communication network in which there are no restrictions and all members are equal is: a. all-channel. b. wheel. c. horizontal. d. nondirectional. 12. Rumours would most likely flourish in situations where there is:

37 a. strong leadership. b. anxiety and ambiguity. c. an unimportant issue. d. planned and well communicated change. 13. All of the following are suggestions for reducing the negative consequences of rumours except: a. announcing timeframes for making important decisions. b. explaining decisions and behaviors that may seem inconsistent or secretive. c. explaining both positive and negative aspects of future plans. d. ignoring the situation because 90 percent of the time the problem goes away. 14. Which of the following statements is not characteristic of nonverbal communication? a. It does not make use of oral processes, speech, or formal language. b. Less is known about it than is known about verbal communication. c. It includes meanings transmitted through facial expressions. d. It is insignificant and should be ignored in the process of explaining and predicting behavior. 15. Tannen s research indicates that men use talk to, while women use it to. a. emphasize status; create connections b. establish blame; emphasize status c. create networks; emphasize separateness d. build relationships; get promotions 16. Which of the following is true regarding the difference between genders when they communicate? a. Women cast themselves in a superior light. b. Women apologize less. c. Women avoid directness and prefer subtlety. d. Women appear more confident than men. 17. In dealing with cross-cultural communication, putting oneself in the recipient s shoes is a method termed: a. empathy. b. semantics. c. sympathy. d. symbolic interaction.

38 18. When communicating with people from a different culture it is best to assume: a. people are all the same b. similar interpretation of symbols c. similar understanding of ideas d. differences until similarity is proven 19. When communicating with people from different cultures it is best to: a. focus on interpretations b. present from your perspective c. treat your interpretation as a working hypothesis d. assume similarities 20. Intranets are a useful way to improve communication with: a. customers b. external clients c. global markets d. employees Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (d) 2.(d) 3.(c) 4.(c) 5.(a) 6.(d) 7.(a) 8.(d) 9.(a) 10.(b) 11(a) 12.(b) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15.(a) 16.(c) 17.(a) 18.(d) 19.(c) 20.(d)

39 Chapter-10: Organizational Change and Development Self Assessment Questions 1. According to Patching, is organisation development. a. Participative management b. Strategic thinking c. Business strategy d. Management development 2. A number of approaches may be used to bring about effective change within an organisation, often called intervention strategies, these include: a. grid training b. team building c. T-groups d. all of the above 3. A definition of organisational culture is that it is the collection of and attitudes that constitute a pervasive context for everything we think and do in an organisation. a. Traditions, values b. Traditions, values, policies, beliefs c. Policies, practices, behaviors d. Values, styles, processes, activities 4. Schein suggested three levels of culture in order from shallowest to deepest. In this order, they are: a. Artefacts,s values, assumptions b. History, artefacts, beliefs c. Assumptions, artefacts, values d. History, values, activities 5. Harrison and Handy describe a project oriented organisation which is structured like a matrix and based on expert power as a culture. a. Role b. Task c. Person d. Power

40 6. According to Deal and Kennedy, an organisation of individualists who take high risks and receive quick feedback, and where internal competition and conflict are normal, the type of culture can be described as: a. process culture b. tough-guy, macho culture c. work-hard/play-hard culture d. bet-your-company culture 7. The pervasive nature of culture means that it will significantly affect: a. decision-making b. motivation and job satisfaction c. group behaviour d. all three of these 8. The Peters and Waterman study revealed that there was a particular factor that led to these organisations effectiveness. What was that factor? a. Being a large multi national organisation b. Dominance and coherence of culture c. Being decentralized and organic d. Having a clear and rigidly defined organisational structure 9. Organisational climate is based on the of members towards the organisation. a. loyalty b. perceptions c. commitment d. none of the above 10. Galunic and Weeks suggest that with the demise of WHAT, companies need other strategies to encourage commitment? a. Promotion opportunities b. Pension plans c. Career paths d. Job security 11. Resistance to change can be caused by: a. Selective perception

41 b. Habit c. Inconvenience d. All three of the above 12. It is Cunningham s belief that, despite the popular myth to the contrary, people generally a. Dislike change b. Prefer stability c. Like being controlled d. Love change 13. Which of the following is NOT one of Kotter and Cohen s series of steps for successful management of large-scale change? a. Unfreezing b. Producing short-term wins c. Empowering action d. Creating visions 14. Emotions which can cause a negative attitude and resistance to change include: a. Over-excitement b. Frustration c. Both of these d. Neither of these 15. According to Hooper and Potter s study of 25 chief executives, which of the following were crucial to the successful management of organisational change? a. Effective communication b. Setting a good personal example c. Self-pacing d. All three of the above 16. A number of approaches may be used to bring about effective change within an organisation, often called intervention strategies, these include: a. survey research and feedback. b. sensitivity training and team building. c. grid training. d. all of the above.

42 17.According to Deal and Kennedy, in a dynamic organisation characterised by fun and action, where employees take few risks and games, meetings, promotions and conventions are encouraged to help maintain motivation, the type of culture can be described as: a. tough-guy, macho culture. b. bet-your-company culture. c. work-hard/play-hard culture. d. process culture. 18. Organisational climate is based on the of members. a. loyalty b. commitment c. perceptions d. none of the above 19. can be viewed in terms of mental attitudes which people have towards their tasks and responsibilities. a. Compliance b. Teamwork c. Cohesion d. Morale 20. Conflict can be seen as behavior intended to the achievement of some other person's goals. a. promote b. control c. obstruct d. enhance Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (d) 2.(d) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(b) 9.(b) 10.(d) 11(d) 12.(d) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(d) 16.(d) 17.(c) 18.(c) 19.(d) 20.(c)