3. The first phase of a training programme is a training needs analysis. What does this aim to do?

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1 1. Organisations develop through training and development which bring benefits to employees as well as the organisations. Which of the following would not be regarded as a common feature that would result from training in today's modern workplace? a. Same job for life b. Develop a range of transferable skills c. Improve chances of promotion d. Be able to move more easily between jobs and other organisations 2. Training needs analysis can take place at organisational, task, and person levels. At the organisational level, it broadly examines what are the organisation's strategic plans and where is training and development needed to fit into the planning. Organisational training needs generally occur when: a. Other competing organizations are conducting extensive training programmes. b. Government provides additional funding. c. Information technology systems need upgrading. d. There is some kind of barrier hindering the achievement of organizational aims and objectives which is best removed by training. 3. The first phase of a training programme is a training needs analysis. What does this aim to do? a. Identify the training objectives b. Establish the training resources required c. Produce selection criteria d. All of the above 4. In his contribution to understanding learning and learning outcomes, Gagne produced six types of learning related to human performance which he called capabilities, but which of the following is correct? a. All of the below b. Motor Skills c. Cognitive strategies d. Basic learning

2 5. There is no one theory of learning that can be applied to any training programme. The social learning theory has been used successfully in many settings and can be broken down into component parts involving observation, practise, and feedback. Bandura found that various factors also enhanced training such as: a. all of the below. b. models being the same race and gender as the trainee. c. models perceived to be friendly and helpful. d. high status models. 6. Anderson's theory of skill development distinguishes between declarative and procedural knowledge. Procedural knowledge refers to knowing how to do something, but what is declarative knowledge? a. Automatic task processing b. Muscle memory c. Factual knowledge about a task d. Associative knowledge of the task 7. One of the major changes in recent years has been the advance of technology and this is evident in training. A CIPD (2008) survey reported nearly 60% of surveyed organisations were already using e-learning which could be described as learning supported by the use of computing technology. The survey also found: a. it is not as effective as traditional training methods. b. it cannot usefully be blended with other training methods. c. it is most often used to complement other forms of learning and development. d. None of the above. 8. Evaluation forms the final stage of the training programme and various models of evaluation have been produced to meet this aspect. Whose model has the four levels of Reaction, Learning, Behaviour, and Results? a. Goldstein b. Cooper and Robertson c. Alliger and Janak d. Kirkpatrick

3 9. When evaluating interventions, organisations often resort to the lowest level of Kirkpatrick s model and only gather reaction level data. However, reaction level data can be improved by asking trainees: a. how difficult and useful they found the training. b. how useful and enjoyable they found the training. c. how difficult they found the training. d. how much they enjoyed the training. 10. Transfer of learning to the workplace needs to be made for the training programme to have been successful. Which of the following can hinder this process? a. All of the below b. Ridicule from colleagues c. Lack of managerial support d. Low self-efficacy 11. In an economic downturn, training budgets are likely to be cut and the case for training needs to be strongly made. Recent research by Anderson (2007) has confirmed previous findings that relatively few organisations perform thorough evaluations. Why could this be? a. A threat of union action b. Managers do not want to be associated with a training programme that could be assessed as a waste of resources c. Training success is obvious and no detailed assessment is required d. None of the above 12. The concept of communities of practice (CoP) has grown in the past decade and can evolve formally or informally using communication and information technology. What is an appropriate description of a CoP? a. An individual who is willing to disseminate relevant information to interested parties b. Groups of people who interact regularly on issues important to them and share best practice for their mutual benefit c. A gathering of experts in a particular field who allow their work to be disseminated over the internet d. A workplace based group willing to communicate with others using the internet and intranet

4 Answer of Mcq 1. a 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. a 11. c 12. d 13) Manufacturing was the main concern of personnel department during: a. Mechanistic period b. Catalytic period c. Organistic period d. Strategic period 14) Which of the following skills are required most by the Top-level managers? a. Technical skills b. Interpersonal skills c. Conceptual skills

5 d. All of the given options 15) Which of the following is a measure to ensure minorities involvement on equalitybasis who had been discriminated in the past? a. Equal employment opportunity b. Affirmative action c. Civil rights d. Anti-gender discrimination 16) Following are all included in 'Statistical Approach' of forecasting EXCEPT: Trend analysis Sensitivity analysis Ratio analysis Regression analysis 17) Career counseling is included in which of the functions of HRM? a. Compensation & benefits b. Planning and selections c. Training & development d. Maintaining HRIS 18) team has control over its work pace, determination of work assignments and operate without a manager. a. Problem identification b. Self-managed c. Virtual d. Cross-functional 19) Org abs is hiring the line managers for the vacant positions, which type of skill setthey will prefer during hiring new candidates? a. High level of technical education with least conceptual skills. b. Lower level of technical skills with interpersonal skills

6 c. Minimum conceptual skills with human skills d. High level of conceptual skills with least technical education 20) Which of the following is a term that concerns with the development of the employees so that they may take immediate decision without resorting or waiting for the orders of the superiors? a. Empowerment b. Centralization c. Fringe Benefits d. None of the above Answer of Mcq 13. a 14. c 15. b 16. b 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. a 21) Which one of the following becomes a creative factor in production? a) Land b) Capital c) Consumers d) Human Resources 22) People cast in the role of contributors to production are called

7 a) Capitalist b) Land owners c) Human Resources d) Consumers 23) Wide range of abilities and attributes possessed by people are called as a) Management b) Human Resources c) Entrepreneur d) Intreprenuer 24) Deployment of which resource is difficult to master a) Human b) Land c) Capital d) Natural 25) The focus of Human Resource Management revolves around a) Machine b) Motivation c) Money d) Men 26) Quality- oriented organization primary concern centers around a) Coordination

8 b) Communication c) Human Resources d) Discipline 27) Quality goals require alignment with a) Production b) Human Resources c) Finance d) Purchase 28) Demand for human resources and management is created by a) Expansion of industry (b) Shortage of labor c) Abundance of capital d) Consumer preferences 29) Management function arises as a result of a) Consumer preferences (b) Abundance of capital (c) Expansion of industry d) Shortage of labor 30) Union function arises as a result of employees a) Problem of communication b) Longing for belonging

9 c) Dissatisfaction d) Change in technology 31) Human Resource Management is primarily concerned with a) Sales b) Dimensions of people c) External environment d) Cost discipline 32) Human Resource Management aims to maximize employees as well as organizational a) Effectiveness b) Economy c) Efficiency d) Performativity 33) The difference between human resource management and personnel management is a)insignificant b) Marginal c) Narrow d) Wide 34) Human Resource Management function does not involve a) Recruitment b) Selection c) Cost control

10 d) Training 35) Which one is not the specific goal of human resource management? a) Attracting applicants b) Separating employees c) Retaining employees d) Motivating employees 36) Identify which one is an added specific goal of human resource management a) Retraining b) Learning c) Unlearning d) Separating 37) Identify the top most goal of human resource management a) Legal compliance b) Competitive edge c) Work force adaptability d) Productivity 38) To achieve goals organizations require employees a) Control b) Direction c) Commitment d) Cooperation

11 39) Human resource management helps improve a) Production b) Productivity c) Profits d) Power 40) The amount of quality output for amount of input means a) Productivity b) Production c) Sales increase d) Increase in profits 41) Responding to employees and involving them in decision making is referred to as a) Quality of work life b) Autonomy c) Empowerment d) Preaction Answer of Mcq 21. d 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. d 26. c

12 27. b 28. a 29. d 30. c 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. c 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. c 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. Kets de Vries (1996) identified that most successful leaders perform two roles. What are these roles? a) Charismatic and architectural b) Tough and supportive c) Directive and mentoring d) Intellectual and coaching 43. The Action Centred Leadership model was put forward and developed in 1973 by whom?

13 a) Beer b) Taylor c) Adair d) Fiedler 44. It has been identified that there are 6 Pillars of Character that are important to adopting and ethical perspective in leadership development. Can you name four of the six? a) Trustworthiness, Respect, Responsibility, Fairness, Caring and Citizenship b) Ruthlessness, Drive, Determination, Toughness, Supportive, Action orientated c) Supportive, intelligent, insightful, good communicator, toughness, Fair d) Caring, softness, intelligent, decisive, team player, communicator 45. Berg and Chyung use an analogy to distinguish formal and informal learning. In this analogy, formal learning is represented as a journey by bus, whereas informal learning is characterized as what? a) Like flying an aero plane b) Like riding a bicycle c) Like driving a car d) Like being on a train 46. Barner and Higgins identify four theory models of coaching to which all coaches will subscribe, consciously or otherwise, in varying degrees. Which of these models aims primarily to help the individual to gain insights into themselves (as a person and as a manager) and to effect changes based on those insights? a) Systems model b) Social constructionist model c) Behavioural model

14 d) Clinical model 47. The authors suggest the idea of wrappers for a series of related and overlapping concepts that writers and organizations use to define and delineate practices in areas related to leadership and management development. Which three concepts make up these wrappers? a) Alignment, human resource planning, and skills analysis b) Career planning, talent pipeline, and retention strategies c) Talent management, succession management, and career management d) Career ladders, talent pools, and engagement practices 48. The authors take a broad view of leadership and management (L&M) development, including all activities aimed at building ongoing L&M capacity, enabling the organization to meet its objectives, to sustain itself and to what else? a) Transform itself b) Develop talent c) Agree strategy d) Make money 49. Holton (1996) criticised Kirkpatrick's model of levels of evaluation in learning, stating that only three of these levels were causally related to learning and development. Which were the three levels Holton identified? a) Reactions, learning, organizational results b) Learning, individual performance, organizational results c) Reactions, individual performance, learning d) Learning, Reactions, organizational results 50. Stein et al (2008) found that top executives differed significantly from the remainder of the general population in terms of a certain personal characteristic. This difference was also found to

15 be linked to effective leadership and organizational effectiveness. What was the identified personal characteristic? a) Greater emotional intelligence b) More ambition c) Greater IQ d) More personality 51. What is the Human Capital Perspective argument for diversity management in leadership and management? a) Using human resource planning to identify leaders and managers b) Assessing all employees in terms of the money they make c) Taking advantage of the talents available in the whole of the workforce d) Telling employees that their knowledge and skills will be assessed and used by managers 52. Research in the styles of leadership preferred by different generations was completed by Arsenault (2004). What was the style of leadership that Generation X was found to prefer? a) Directive b) Authoritarian c) Participative d) Egalitarian 53. Which of the four theorists added a Chinese dimension to Hofsted's cultural dimensions? a) Schein b) Bond c) Trompenaars d) Adler

16 54. Earley and Mosakowski (2004) developed the concept of cultural intelligence in the context of attitudes and skills. Which of the following did they identify which related to learning strategies whereby people acquire and develop coping strategies? a) Mind b) Knowledge c) Heart d) Body 55. Which of the following aspects do not have an impact on Employment Law? a) Recruitment and selection. b) Dismissal c) Education qualifications d) Finance 56. Whilst there is no consensus as to what global leadership competencies are there is agreement as to what according to Neary and O'Grady? a) Lead change b) Internal and external networking c) Management style d) The need to develop managers through such an approach 57. Which of Mabey and Salaman's (1995) four management agendas assumed an unproblematic link between management development and performance? a) Political reinforcement b) Functional performance c) Compensation

17 d) Psychic defence 58. Planning to learn from experience is in keeping with which of Mumford's four approaches to learning? a) Prospective approach b) Intuitive approach c) Incidental approach d) Retrospective approach 59. Which of the following is an advantage of informal learning opportunities? a) Idealisation: whereby past experiences are valued to the exclusion of other learning opportunities. b) Narrowness: where a manager's work experience is specific and blinkers the desire to widen the managerial perspective. c) Obsolescence: previously acquired experience may have become out of date. This may be exemplified by a manager from the public sector moving into the private sector. d) Job change within the same function. 60. Which of Carnall's (2003) four core managerial components essential for the effective management of change involves team building? a) Decision making b) Coalition building c) Achieving action d) Maintaining momentum 61. International management development involves the CEO and the senior team and other key elements. Which of the following is not one of the key elements?

18 a) The global strategy b) Human resource and line capabilities c) Senior Management involvement d) Performance management Answer of Mcq 42. a 43. c 44. a 45. b 46. d 47. c 48. a 49. b 50. a 51. c 52. d 53. b 54. a 55. d 56. d 57. b 58. a 59. d 60. d

19 61. d 62. What are the two ways that a company can obtain new products? a. market mix modification and research and development b. service development and product extension c. new-product development and acquisition d. internal development and merger e. line extension and brand management 63. Which of the following is not a potential cause of the failure of a new product? a. an incorrectly positioned product b. a poorly designed product c. higher than anticipated costs of product development d. an underestimated market size e. ineffective advertising 64. The creation of a successful new product depends on a company's understanding of its and its ability to deliver to customers. a. product life cycle, legal responsibilities, and social responsibilities; innovations b. competitors, distributors, and employees; new styles c. customers, competitors, and markets; superior value d. product, marketing mix, and marketing strategy; functional features e. customers, brands, products; product images 65. Executives, manufacturing employees, and salespeople are all examples of. a. core members of innovation management systems b. new-product committee members c. external sources for new-product ideas d. internal sources for new-product ideas e. research and development team members 66. Which of the following is perhaps the most important external source of new-product ideas?

20 a. trade magazines, shows, and seminars b. customers c. distributors and suppliers d. engineers e. competitors 67. Your firm wants to use external sources for new product ideas. After consulting with a friend you learn that all of the following are common external sources except. a. the firm's executives b. trade shows and magazines c. suppliers d. customers e. competitors 68. GrayBerry Gifts has just brainstormed a large number of ideas for adding new products and services after visiting several buying fairs. The owners will begin the first idea-reducing stage, called, to arrive at a realistic number to adopt. a. idea generation b. concept development c. idea dissemination d. idea screening e. product concept 69. A detailed version of a new idea stated in meaningful customer terms is called a. a. product movement b. product proposal c. product image d. product idea e. product concept 70. An attractive idea must be developed into a. a. test market b. product idea c. product concept d. product strategy e. product image

21 71. In the concept testing stage of new-product development, a product concept in form is presented to groups of target consumers. a. market-tested b. physical or symbolic c. final d. prototype e. commercial 72. After concept testing, a firm would engage in which stage in developing and marketing a new product? a. marketing strategy development b. business analysis c. product development d. idea screening e. test marketing 73. The second part of the marketing strategy statement outlines the product's planned price, distribution, and for the first year. a. target market b. positioning c. marketing budget d. advertising e. promotion 74. During which stage of new-product development is management most likely to estimate minimum and maximum sales to assess the range of risk in launching a new product? a. marketing strategy development b. product development c. test marketing d. business analysis e. concept testing

22 75. In the stage of new-product development, products often undergo rigorous tests to make sure that they perform safely and effectively or that consumers will find value in them. a. business analysis b. product development c. idea generation d. concept development and testing d. marketing mix Answer of Mcq 62. d 63. b 64. d 65. d 66. e 67. c 68. e 69. a 70. e 71. d 72. c 73. c 74. c 75. a

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