BIOL 1103 AT. Come to the PASS workshop with your mock exam complete. During the workshop you can work with other students to review your work.

Transcription

1 It is most beneficial to you to write this mock midterm UNDER EXAM CONDITIONS. This means: Complete the midterm in 1.5 hour(s). Work on your own. Keep your notes and textbook closed. Attempt every question. After the time limit, go back over your work with a different colour or on a separate piece of paper and try to do the questions you are unsure of. Record your ideas in the margins to remind yourself of what you were thinking when you take it up at PASS. The purpose of this mock exam is to give you practice answering questions in a timed setting and to help you to gauge which aspects of the course content you know well and which are in need of further development and review. Use this mock exam as a learning tool in preparing for the actual exam. Please note: Come to the PASS workshop with your mock exam complete. During the workshop you can work with other students to review your work. Often, there is not enough time to review the entire exam in the PASS workshop. Decide which questions you most want to review the Facilitator may ask students to vote on which questions they want to discuss in detail. Facilitators do not bring copies of the mock exam to the session. Please print out and complete the exam before you attend. Facilitators do not produce or distribute an answer key for mock exams. Facilitators help students to work together to compare and assess the answers they have. If you are not able to attend the PASS workshop, you can work alone or with others in the class. Good Luck writing the Mock Exam!! Dates and locations of mock exam take-up: Wednesday November 15 th 7:35-9:25 PM (AT 101) Thursday November 16 th 5:35-7:25 PM (AT 101)

2 1. Which of the following statements about Light Dependent Reactions is FALSE? a. Pheophytin is the primary electron acceptor in Photosystem II. b. Photosystem I has a reaction centre with an absorption peak of 680 nm. c. P680 s lost electron is replenished through the splitting of a water molecule. d. The energy lost through the electron transport chain is used to pump protons across the thylakoid membrane to create a pmf to drive ATP synthase. e. The electrons from Photosystem I are donated to ferredoxin and used to reduce NAPD + to NADPH. 2. Which of the following statements about the DNA double helix is true? a. DNA strands have directionality (: a 5 and a 3 end) b. The two strands are antiparallel c. The two strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between complementary bases d. Nucleotides are joined together by phosphodiester bonds e. All of the above 3. What is the net expenditure for the G3P made during the Calvin Cycle? a. 3 ATP and 2 NADPH b. 3 ATP and 3 NADPH c. 6 ATP and 6 NADPH d. 9 ATP and 6 NADPH e. 9 ATP and 9 NADPH 4. Which molecule is most scarce in an mrna? a. Guanine b. Adenine c. Cytosine d. Thymine e. It is impossible to know without more information.

3 5. During DNA replication tension builds up as the template strands unwind. What relieves this pressure? a. Helicase b. Topoisomerase c. DNA Ligase d. Single-stranded binding proteins e. DNA Polymerase II 6. Oswald Avery s experiments confirmed that DNA was the molecule that transmitted genetic information. What was contained in the solution that he used during his experiment to prove this? a. Only DNA b. DNase c. R and S strains of bacteria d. Only the R strain of bacteria e. A combination of biomacromolecules 7. If an mrna sequence is 5 - UGAACCUGA- 3, what is the sequence of the DNA template strand? a. 5 - TCAAGGTCA - 3 b. 5 - TGAACCTGA 3 c. 3 - ACTTGGACT- 5 d. 5 ACTTGGACT- 3 e. 3 TGAAGGTGA Which of the following statements about alternate methods of carbon fixation in plants is true? a. In C4 and CAM plants the CO2 is first fixed into an organic acid, malate. b. C4 plants only admit CO2 at night. c. CAM plants admit CO2 at night. d. Both a and b are correct. e. Both a and c are correct.

4 9. Where are photosystems II and I located? a. Stroma of the chloroplast b. Thylakoid membrane c. Thylakoid space d. Outer membrane of the chloroplast e. Cytoplasm surrounding the chloroplast 10. Which of the following statements about the Calvin Cycle is true? a. It is carried out on the Thylakoid membrane. b. It uses ATP and NADPH to convert CO2 to the sugar G3P. c. Converts solar energy to chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH. d. During the Calvin Cycle the splitting of H2O occurs leading to the release of O2 to the atmosphere. e. It processes three molecules of CO2 each cycle. 11. According to complementary base pairing, DNA Thymine would bind with what molecule? a. DNA Adenine b. RNA Uracil c. DNA Cytosine d. RNA Adenine e. DNA Guanine 12. Which of the following serves as an adapter molecule during protein synthesis? a. trna b. rrna c. mrna d. trna & mrna e. rrna & trna

5 13. If there is a change in one DNA base pair that results in the substitution of one amino acid for another in the protein made by a gene, this is a? a. Missense mutation b. Nonsense mutation c. Frameshift mutation d. Silent mutation e. Point mutation 14. Which of the following signals the termination of transcription in eukaryotes? a. TATA Box b. Stop Codon c. GTP d. microrna e. Polyadenylation 15. During which phase of the cell cycle do eukaryotes undergo replication? a. G0 b. G1 c. S phase d. G2 e. M phase 16. Thymine makes up 36% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of nucleotides in this sample will be Guanine? a. 36% b. 28% c. 14% d. 7% e. It cannot be determined from the information provided.

6 17. Which of the following statements describes the concept of semi-conservative DNA replication? a. A pre-existing DNA strand acts as a template for the synthesis of new, complementary strands. b. Each DNA strand of both daughter molecules contains a mixture of both old and newly synthesized DNA. c. DNA strands of the parental molecule separate and each forms a new molecule by functioning as a template for the synthesis of a new, complementary strand. d. DNA Polymerase III carries out synthesis by extending from the RNA primer (5 to 3 ) e. That the lagging strand of DNA is synthesized in short fragments called Okazaki fragments. 18. Which of the following statements about DNA replication in eukaryotes is true? a. Exonuclease excises segments of DNA and RNA that are not needed to make proteins. b. DNA polymerase II can carry out DNA synthesis from both 5 and 3 ends. c. DNA Topoisomerase separates the two strands of DNA. d. DNA polymerase I removes the RNA primer and replaces it with DNA nucleotides. e. Okazaki fragments can be found on both the leading and lagging strands. 19. Which of the following stabilizes DNA during replication to enable the replication process to occur? a. Helicase b. Topoisomerase c. Exonuclease d. Single-stranded binding proteins e. DNA Polymerase II 20. What are exons? a. Sequences of a gene that are transcribed into RNA but are subsequently excised during processing. b. Sequences of a gene that are transcribed into RNA for protein synthesis. c. The only parts of an RNA sequence that encode information. d. Parts of a mrna molecule that are 3 nucleotides long and code for proteins. e. Sequences that signal transcription termination.

7 21. Given the following sequence, match the correct amino acid sequence. (Genetic code table on last page) 5.UUAGAUGGCAGCUGU 3 a. Leucine, Aspartic Acid, Glycine, Serine, Cysteine b. Leucine, Glutamic Acid, Alanine, Serine, Cysteine c. Phenylalanine, Aspartic Acid, Proline, Tyrosine, Valine d. Isoleucine, Arginine, Tyrosine. Glycine, Leucine 22. To which amino acid does the trna coded CUA correspond? a. Proline b. Aspartate c. Glycine d. Leucine e. Asparagine 23. If there is a deletion of a base in a coding region of a gene this could result in a. a. Missense mutation b. Nonsense mutation c. Frameshift mutation d. Silent mutation e. None of the above 24. Which of the following sites located in the ribosomal large subunit holds the trna carrying the growing polypeptide chain? a. A site b. P site c. C site d. D site e. E site

8 25. Which of the following is incorrectly paired? a. Prophase Nucleolus disappears b. Prometaphase Nuclear envelope fragments c. Metaphase Chromosomes are pulled by kinetochore microtubules d. Anaphase Nuclear envelope starts to reform e. Telophase Chromosomes condense 26. Given the following mrna sequence, what are the last two amino acids before the stop codon? (Genetic code table on last page) 5 UCGAAACGCGGGUAGUA 3 a. Proline, Valine b. Tyrosine, Glycine c. Arginine, Glycine d. Arginine, Valine e. Leucine, Histidine 27. What is the main function of the Poly-A tail? a. It promotes export of mrna from the nucleus. b. It protects pre-mrna from degradation. c. It removes introns from pre-mrna. d. It is the protein synthesis termination site. e. It signals the end of transcription. 28. Which of the following statements about replication in prokaryotes is false? a. Division occurs through binary fission b. Most prokaryotes have a single, circular DNA molecule. c. Replication of bacterial chromosome begins at the origin of replication d. Active movement distributes two replicated chromosomes to two ends of the cell e. None of the above

9 29. Where does transcription occur and where does translation occur in eukaryotic cells? a. Cytoplasm; Nucleus b. Cytoplasm; Cytoplasm c. Nucleus; Nucleus d. Nucleus; Cytoplasm e. Nucleus; Rough ER 30. Which of the following best describes mismatch repair? a. Specialized enzymes check the newly synthesized DNA duplex and remove any incorrectly matched base pairs. b. Polymerases check the strands and remove incorrect base pairs to insert the correct nucleotide. c. Mismatches rarely have an effect on the cell and are thus ignored. d. Sequence changes in the DNA occur and become permanent. e. DNA repair enzymes attempt to repair damage to the DNA prior to replication. Use the following diagrams to answer questions 33 and 34 below: In which phase is cohesin hydrolyzed? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e During which phase do most chromosome abnormalities occur? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5

10 33. In what order to the steps of the light dependent reactions occur? a. Light Photosystem I Photosystem II O 2 b. Water Photosystem I Electron Transport Chain Photosystem II c. NADP + Photosystem II Electron Transport Chain Photosystem I d. Water Photosystem II Photosystem I NADP + e. Light Photosystem II Photosystem I Sugar 34. When a photon of light is absorbed by a photosynthetic pigment to excite an electron, which of the following DOES NOT occur? a. The electron is passed to an electron accepting molecule in a REDOX reaction. b. The electron falls back to its ground state, releasing energy in the form of light. c. The electron is passed to another pigment molecule. d. The electron undergoes inductive resonance. e. None of the above. 35. Chlorophyll α, Chlorophyll β, and Carotenoids are three different types of pigments found in the chloroplasts of plants. Using the scale below as a guide, determine which statement is correct. a. All three of the pigments will absorb any of the wavelengths b. None of the pigments will absorb wavelengths between 520 and 550 nm in length c. The pigments will only absorb wavelengths between 520 and 550 nm in length d. Each of the pigments will have entirely different absorption spectra e. The absorption spectra of Chlorophyll α pigments will be similar to that of Chlorophyll β pigments, but different from that of Carotenoid pigments 36. Alcohol fermentation plays a big role in the production of beer and other types of alcohol. The type of beverage that will be produced in dependent on certain characteristics of the yeast involved in the fermentation process. Which of the following are characteristics of bottom fermenting yeasts? a. Produce ales b. Produce lagers c. Ferment optimally at temperatures near 20 o C d. Options a and c are both correct. e. Options b and c are both correct.

11 37. During the reduction phase of the Calvin cycle, how many carbon atoms are present? a. 5 b. 6 c. 9 d. 15 e After the regeneration phase of the Calvin cycle how many molecules of Ribulose bisphosphate are present? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 e Photorespiration occurs: a. In C3 plants when the weather is very hot and dry b. Regularly in C4 and CAM plants c. When the oxygenation of Rubisco is inhibited d. When RuBP cannot get enough oxygen e. When too may G3P are being produced 40. Which of the following statements is false? a. Euchromatin is expressed and heterochromatin is repressed b. Heterochromatin interacts closely with histones c. DNA packing is largely responsible for gene expression d. Heterochromatin takes up more space than an equivalent amount of euchromatin e. All statements are true 41. DNA cannot synthesize spontaneously or continuously; it requires which enzyme to begin replication? a. Topoisomerase b. RNA Primase c. Single Stranded Binding Proteins d. Helicase e. A single enzyme cannot be determined

12 42. Which structure is used exclusively on the lagging strand during DNA synthesis? a. DNA ligase b. DNA polymerase I c. Helicase d. Okazaki fragments e. DNA polymerase III 43. In which phase do liver cells spend most of their time? a. G 1 b. S c. G 2 d. M e. Interphase 44. Neuron cells do not heal because they do not partake in which process? a. Protein synthesis b. Mitosis c. The cell cycle d. RNA transcription and translation e. No options are correct; neuron cells do heal 45. Which of the following statements regarding DNA Polymerase is false? a. There are three types of DNA polymerase b. DNA growth is 5 to 3 c. It uses a nucleotide with a deoxyribose sugar d. DNA is produced from a complementary RNA template e. DNA must add to a pre-existing polynucleotide strand

13 46. The following test tubes were obtained as results for a re-creation of Meselson and Stahl s experiment: Experiment # First Replication Second Replication 1 (semiconservative) 2 (semiconservative) 3 (conservative) 4 (dispersive/none) Which of the following statements is false? a. Experiment 1 and 2 illustrate semi-conservative models of DNA replication b. Experiment 4 began with an isotope that was lighter than the produced isotope c. The blue line represents the less dense isotope d. Experiment 2 began with an isotope that was more dense than the produced isotope e. It is not possible to discern whether Experiment 3 began using the lighter or heavier isotope 47. Where are centrioles found? a. In the centrosomes of animal cells b. In the formation of the cell plate in plant cells c. Holding sister chromatids together d. Supporting the cytoskeleton e. In the kinetochores of animal cells 48. Which of the following statements about snrnps is false? a. They are small ribonucleoproteins b. snrnps function on their own without help from other molecules c. There are multiple types of snrnps d. They serve to splice pre-mrna e. All options are correct

14 49. A single gene can produce many different proteins, what is responsible for this? a. The 20 unique amino acids. b. The exons within a mrna molecule. c. The introns within an pre-mrna molecule. d. Mutations that occur during RNA synthesis. e. The way a pre-mrna molecule is spliced. 50. Which of the following is false for prokaryotes? a. The primary transcript is in the mrna. b. Transcription and translation both occur in the same location. c. There are three types of RNA polymerase. d. There are two steps to synthesize proteins from DNA. e. Transcription and translation can occur simultaneously. 51. What types of organisms are most likely to be found in atmospheres like deep soils, devoid of oxygen? a. Bacteria b. Yeasts c. Facultative anaerobes d. Obligate anaerobes e. Archaea 52. In the absence of cyclin a. CDK levels increase b. CDK levels decrease c. CDKs begin phosphorylation d. CDKs trigger mitosis e. None of the above

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